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Title: Carrier%20Air%20Wing%20ELEVEN%20EAWS%20Common%20Core%20Tutorial%20%20Created%20by:%20NCC(AW)%20M.%20J.%20WILSON%20Command%20Career%20Counselor


1
Carrier Air Wing ELEVEN EAWS Common Core
Tutorial Created by NCC(AW) M. J.
WILSON Command Career Counselor
2
First Aid Fundamentals
3
State the three objectives of first aid
  1. Save Life
  2. Prevent Further Injury
  3. Prevent Infection

4
State the methods of controlling bleeding
  • Direct Pressure
  • Elevation
  • Pressure points
  • Tourniquet (last resort)

5
State the location of principal pressure points
on each side of the body (10)
  • Temple
  • Jaw
  • Neck
  • Collar Bone
  • Inner Upper Arm
  • Wrist
  • Upper Thigh
  • Groin
  • Knee
  • Ankle

6
Describe the symptoms of shock
  • Vacant / Lackluster Eyes
  • Shallow or Irregular Breathing
  • Cold, Pale Skin
  • Nausea
  • Weak or Absent Pulse
  • Feeling Faint

7
State the treatment for shock
  • Lay victim down with feet elevated 6 - 12
  • Cover victim to maintain body heat

8
Describe the three classifications of burns
  • First Degree- mildest, producing redness,
    increased warmth, tenderness and mild pain
  • Second Degree- red and blistered skin severe
    pain
  • Third Degree- destroyed tissue, skin and bone in
    severe cases. Pain maybe absent due to nerve
    endings being destroyed

9
Describe the symptoms for heat exhaustion
  • Skin is cool, moist, and clammy
  • Pupils are dilated
  • Normal or Subnormal body temperature
  • Sweating profusely

10
Discuss treatment for heat exhaustion
  • Move the victim to cool or air conditioned area
  • Loosen clothing
  • Apply cool wet cloths to head, groin and ankles
  • Fan victim do not allow victim to become chilled
  • If conscious, give a solution of one teaspoon
    salt dissolved in a liter of cool water
  • Transport to Medical Facility

11
Discuss the symptoms for heat stroke
  • Hot and/or dry skin
  • Uneven pupil dilation
  • Weak, rapid pulse

12
Discuss treatment for heat stroke
  • Reduce heat immediately by dousing the body in
    cold water
  • Apply wet, cold towels to the body around the
    shoulders and neck. Additional packs can be
    placed on ankles and groin area
  • Move victim to coolest possible place
  • Maintain an open airway

13
State the difference between and open and
closed fracture
  • Closed (Simple) fractures are internal and do not
    break the skin
  • Open (Compound) fractures cause an open wound in
    the tissue or skin

14
State the steps in rescuing a person from
electrical shock
  • Turn off the current immediately
  • If unable to secure power, remove victim using a
    non-conductive object (dry broom handle, oar,
    board, etc)
  • Administer artificial ventilation
  • Check for pulse and start CPR if necessary

15
Describe the method for clearing an obstructed
airway
  • Stand behind victim and wrap your arms around the
    victims waist.
  • Grasp your wrist and place thumb side of your
    fist against the victims abdomen above the navel
    and just below the rib cage.
  • Give 4 quick upward thrusts to the victim

16
Define hypothermia
  • General cooling of the whole body caused by
    exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature,
    cold moisture, snow or ice

17
Give symptoms of hypothermia
  • Slow and shallow breathing
  • Faint or undetectable pulse
  • Body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and
    legs may feel stiff

18
Discuss treatment for hypothermia
  • Wrap patient in warm blankets and place in a warm
    room
  • Do not give hot drinks or other stimulants until
    he/she regains consciousness
  • Get medical attention immediately

19
Discuss the two types of frostbite and treatment
  • Superficial- Ice crystals form in the upper skin
    layers after exposure to temperatures of 32
    degrees or lower
  • Deep Frostbite- Ice crystals form in the deeper
    tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32
    degrees or lower.
  • Treatment- Get victims indoor, re-warm the area
    by placing them in warm water or with hot water
    bottles. Never rub frostbite areas and seek
    medical attention immediately

20
General Safety Fundamentals
21
Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety
Program
  • Preserve human and material resources
  • Material resources include naval aircraft, ships,
    facilities and weapons

22
Who is the principal advisor to the CO on all
aviation safety matters
  • Aviation Safety Officer

23
Who is the principal advisor to the CO on all
ground safety matters?
  • Ground Safety Officer

24
Who must comply with established safety standards?
  • All Hands

25
List factors that can contribute to aviation
mishaps
  • Human Error
  • Maintenance Support Factors
  • Administrative Supervisory Factors
  • Material failures or malfunctions
  • Environmental factors

26
Define a Class A mishap
  • Resulting in property damage of 1,000,000,000
    or more
  • Or an injury or occupational illness resulting in
    a fatality or permanent total disability

27
Define a Class B mishap
  • Resulting in property damage is 200,000 or more,
    but less than 1,000,000,000
  • Or an injury or occupational illness resulting in
    permanent partial disability or three or more
    personnel are inpatient hospitalized

28
Define a Class C mishap
  • Property damage is 10,000 or more, but less than
    200,000
  • Or a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of
    time beyond the day or shift on which it
    occurred or a non-fatal illness or disease that
    causes loss of time from work or disability at
    any time

29
Define a Class D mishap
  • Property damage is less than 10,000
  • Or a non-fatal injury (no lost time or first aid
    case) that does not meet the criteria of a Class
    C mishap

30
State the objective of the Aviation Gas-Free
Engineering Program (AVGFE)
  • To ensure a safe environment is maintained when
    working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems

31
AVGFE technician shall have what qualifications
and training
  • Must be a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)
    or Collateral Duty Quality Assurance
    Representative (CDQAR)
  • Must be a graduate of the AVGFE course

32
Explain the hazards of Radio Frequency energy
  • Can cause life-threatening electric shock, burns,
    biological changes, and cataracts.
  • Can cause premature or unwanted activation of
    electro-explosive devices in ordnance

33
Discuss the concept of Operational Risk
Management (ORM)
  • Systematic, decision-making process used to
    identity and manage hazards that endanger naval
    resources.

34
State the 5 steps or ORM
  • Identify hazards
  • Assess hazards
  • Make risk decisions
  • Implement controls
  • Supervise

35
Chain of Command Fundamentals
36
What are the two chain of commands for operating
forces
  • Operation- From the President, through the
    Secretary of the Navy to a commander of a unified
    or specified command
  • Administrative- through the Secretary of the Navy
    and the Chief of Naval Operations to the
    operating forces

37
What is a unified command
  • Composed of elements of two or more services. It
    has a broad continuing mission, and has a single
    commander. Examples
  • Atlantic Command
  • Pacific Command
  • European Command
  • Southern Command
  • Central Command
  • Readiness Command

38
Name the three Fleet Commanders
  • Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet
  • Commander, U.S. Atlantic Fleet
  • Commander, U.S. Naval Forces Europe

39
Which fleets fall under each commander
  • Atlantic Fleet 2nd Fleet
  • Pacific Fleet 3rd 7th Fleets
  • Europe 6th Fleet

40
Who is the Secretary of the Navy?
  • Honorable Gordon R. Englund

41
Who is the Chief of Naval Operations?
  • Admiral Vern Clark

42
Who is the MCPON
  • MCPON Terry Scott

43
Who is the PACFLT Master Chief?
  • Fleet Master Chief Rodriguez

44
Who is our Force Master Chief?
  • Force Master Chief Keith Goosby

45
How many personnel must be assigned to rate a
Command Master Chief?
  • 250

46
State the 6 areas of Naval doctrine
  • Naval Warfare
  • Naval Intelligence
  • Naval Operations
  • Naval Logistics
  • Naval Planning
  • Naval Command and Control

47
On what day was the U.S. Navy born?
  • October 13th, 1775

48
State the 3 levels of war
  • Tactical- involves individual engagements
  • Operational- concerns forces collectively in a
    theater
  • Strategic- focuses on supporting national goals

49
Discuss the importance of the battle of Coral Sea
as it relates to naval aviation
  • The first carrier vs. carrier battle.
  • The USS Lexington was sunk and the USS Yorktown
    was damaged.

50
Discuss the importance of the battle of Midway as
it relates to naval aviation
  • Turning point in the Pacific War
  • Admiral Nimitz positioned 3 carriers out of
    reconnaissance range and after Japanese fighters
    left for Midway, US forces attacked sinking 3
    Japanese carriers the first day and 1 on the
    second day.

51
Discuss the significance of May 8th, 1911, as it
applies to naval aviation
  • May 8th is considered to be the birthday of naval
    aviation. It was the date the first two aircraft
    were ordered

52
What is the name of the first aircraft carrier
  • USS Langley

53
What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
  • FJ-1 Fury

54
Who was the first naval aviator in space
  • Alan Shepard (May 5th, 1961)

55
What two aviation ratings do not start with the
letter A?
  • PR PH

56
Which aviation rate maintains, adjusts, and
repairs aircraft electrical power generating and
converting systems lighting, control and
indicating systems?
  • Aviations Electricians Mate (AE)

57
Aviation Fundamentals
58
Describe the following terms pertaining to
motion Inertia Acceleration Speed and Velocity
  • Inertia- willingness of an object to remain at
    rest or continue in motion unless acted upon by
    an outside force
  • Acceleration- The rate of change of the speed and
    or velocity of matter with time
  • Speed- The rate of movement or motion in a given
    amount of time
  • Velocity- The quickness or speed of an object in
    a given time and direction

59
Define Newtons First Law of Motion
  • An object at rest will remain at rest, or an
    object in motion will remain in motion at the
    same speed and direction, until acted upon by an
    outside force

60
Define Newtons Second Law of Motion
  • States that if an object moving with uniform
    speed is acted upon by an external force, the
    change in motion, or acceleration, will be
    directly proportional to the amount of force and
    inversely proportional to the mass of the object
    being moved.

61
Define Newtons Third Law of Motion
  • States that for every action there is an equal
    and opposite reaction

62
Define Bernoullis Principal
  • States that when a fluid is flowing through a
    tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the
    tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the
    constriction is increased and its pressure
    decreased

63
Discuss the following wind warnings Small Craft
Gale Storm
  • Small Craft- 33 knots or less, of concern to
    small craft
  • Gale- 34 47 knots
  • Storm- 48 knots or greater

64
Discuss the following tropical cyclone warnings
Tropical Depression Tropical Storm
Hurricane/Typhoon Thunderstorm/Tornado
  • Tropical Depression- 33 knots or less
  • Tropical Storm- 34 63 knots
  • Hurricane/Typhoon- 64 knots or greater
  • Thunderstorm- Small scale storm accompanied by
    lighting and thunder
  • Tornado- Violently rotating column of air in the
    form of a funnel. 100 to 250 knots

65
Discuss the following warnings Thunderstorm
Severe Thunderstorm Tornado
  • Thunderstorm- Thunderstorms within 3 miles of the
    airfield
  • Severe Thunderstorm- Wind gusts to 50 knots or
    greater and/or ¾ inch in diameter or greater hail
    is forecast for the warning area
  • Tornado- Tornados have been sited or detected on
    RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area

66
What is lift?
  • The force that acts, in an upward direction, to
    support the aircraft in the air

67
What is Weight?
  • The force of gravity acting downward on the
    aircraft and everything on the aircraft

68
What is Drag?
  • The force that tends to hold the aircraft back.

69
What is Thrust?
  • Force developed by the aircrafts engine, and it
    acts in the forward direction.

70
What is the Longitudinal axis?
  • Imaginary reference line running down the center
    of the aircraft between the nose and the tail.
    The axis about which roll occurs.

71
What is the Lateral axis?
  • Imaginary reference line running parallel to the
    wings and about which pitch occurs

72
What is the Vertical axis?
  • Imaginary reference line running from the top to
    the bottom of the aircraft. The movement
    associated with this axis is yaw

73
State the three primary movements of aircraft
about the axis
  • Pitch- Movement about the lateral axis. Up and
    down motion of the nose.
  • Yaw- Movement about the vertical axis. Drift
    right or left movement of the nose.
  • Roll- Movement about the longitudinal axis.
    Movement of the wingtips one up and one down.

74
Identify and state the purpose of the primary
flight controls for fixed wing aircraft
  • Ailerons- provide control about the longitudinal
    axis (Roll)
  • Elevators- provide control about the lateral axis
    (Pitch)
  • Rudder- provides control about the vertical axis
    (Yaw)

75
State the purpose of the flaps spoiler speed
brakes
  • Flaps- provides extra lift for the aircraft,
    reducing landing speed.
  • Spoiler- used to decrease wing lift by destroying
    the smooth air flow over the wing.
  • Speed brakes- moveable control surfaces used for
    reducing speed.

76
State the purpose of the slats horizontal
stabilizer vertical stabilizer
  • Slats- moveable control surfaces attached to the
    leading edge of the wing. Used to improve the
    lateral control handling.
  • Horizontal Stabilizer- Provides stability of the
    aircraft about its lateral axis.
  • Vertical Stabilizer- Provides stability of the
    aircraft about its vertical axis. Usually serves
    as the base to which the rudder is connected.

77
Explain the term angle of attack
  • The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or
    fuselage, meets a flow of air.
  • Defined as the angle between the chord line of
    the wing (an imaginary straight line from the
    leading edge to trailing edge of the wing) and
    the relative wind.
  • Measured in units as opposed to degrees.

78
Explain the term autorotation
  • Method of allowing a helicopter to land safely
    from altitude without using engine power by
    making use of the reversed airflow up through the
    rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.

79
State the components of a basic hydraulic system
  • Reservoir holds the supply of fluid
  • Pump- provides fluid flow
  • Tubing- transmits fluid
  • Selector valve- directs the fluid flow
  • Actuating unit- converts the pressure into useful
    work

80
Describe and explain the purpose of the main
landing gear components
  • Shock Strut Assembly- Absorbs the shock that
    otherwise would be transmitted to the airframe
  • Tires- Allows roll and provides traction during
    takeoff and landing
  • Wheel Brake Assembly- Used to slow / stop the
    aircraft, and prevent the aircraft from rolling
    while parked
  • Retraction/Extending Mechanism- The hardware to
    electrically or hydraulically extend / retract
    the landing gear
  • Side Struts / Supports- Provides lateral
    strength/support for the landing gear

81
State the safety precautions used when service
aircraft tires
  • Always approach the tires from fore and aft
  • When inflating, stand off to the side
  • Deflate when removing the tire from the aircraft

82
State the 5 basic section of a jet engine
  • Intake- allows outside air to enter the engine
  • Compressor- a series of rotating blades and
    stationary vanes that provides high-pressure air
    to the combustion chamber
  • Combustion Chamber- where fuel enters and
    combines with air
  • Turbine- drives the compressor and accessories by
    extracting energy and pressure from combustion
    gases
  • Exhaust- eliminates turbulence in the emerging
    jet, thereby giving maximum velocity

83
Describe the following engine systems Turbojet
Turbo shaft Turboprop Turbofan
  • Turbojet- Projects a column of air to the rear at
    an extremely high velocity to propel the aircraft
  • Turbo shaft- Delivers power through a shaft to
    drive something other than a propeller
  • Turboprop- Converts the majority of the gas
    energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller
  • Turbofan- Converts gas energy into mechanical
    power to drive a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan

84
State the purpose of the afterburner
  • Used during takeoff and maneuvering to boost the
    normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine
    through additional burning of the remaining
    unused air in the exhaust section

85
List and explain the characteristics and uses of
JP4 JP5 and JP8
  • JP4- Flame spread rate of 700-800 feet per minute
    and a flashpoint of 10 degrees F. Never used on
    ships
  • JP-5- Flame spread rate of 100 feet per minute
    and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F. Used aboard
    naval vessels
  • JP8- Flame spread rate of 100 feet per minute and
    a flashpoint of 100 degrees F. Never used on
    ships

86
List the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel
  • Explosion of fuel fumes
  • Vapor inhalation
  • Toxic contact with skin or eyes

87
Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation
  • Nausea
  • Dizziness
  • Headaches
  • Note Fuel Vapor inhalation can cause death

88
Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit
(APU)
  • Furnish electrical power when engine drive
    generators are not operating and external power
    is not available
  • Provides compressed air for air conditioning and
    pneumatic engine starting
  • Makes the aircraft independent of the need for
    ground power

89
Identify the reasons and methods of
Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
  • Provides 100 sampling with no affect to the use
    of the part or system being inspected
  • Methods visual, optical, liquid penetrate,
    magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, and
    radiographic

90
Discussing icing and its effects on performance
  • Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases
    drag, weight, and stalling speed. Ice on the
    exterior movable surfaces effects control. On
    propellers it decreases efficient and increases
    power requirements. Engine icing can cause loss
    of power.

91
What is the purpose of the Pitot-static?
  • Using the principals of a barometer it consist of
    the pitot-static tube and 3 indicators. The 3
    indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator,
    and rate-of-climb indicator.

92
What is the purpose of the Airspeed Indicator?
  • Displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to
    the air in which it is flying.

93
What is the purpose of the Altimeter?
  • Shows the height of the aircraft above sea level

94
What is the purpose of the Rate-of-climb
indicator?
  • Shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing
    or descending

95
What is the purpose of the Attitude Indicator
  • Shows the pilot the relative position of the
    aircraft compared to the earths horizon

96
What is the purpose of the Turn and Bank
Indicator?
  • Shows the correct execution of a turn and bank.
    Also show the lateral attitude of the aircraft in
    straight flight.

97
What is the purpose of the Navigation Systems?
  • Direct, plow and control the course or position
    of the aircraft

98
What is the purpose of Identification Friend or
Foe (IFF)
  • Electronic system that allows a friendly craft to
    identify itself automatically before approaching
    near enough to threaten the security of other
    naval units

99
What is the purpose of Radio Detection and
Ranging (RADAR)
  • Radio device used to detect objects at distances
    much greater than is visually possible.

100
What is the purpose of the Magnetic (standby)
Compass?
  • A direct-reading magnetic compass mounted in the
    instrument panel. Provides a back up to main
    compass

101
What is the purpose of Communication Systems?
  • Equipment that allows for communication between
    aircraft,ships, and other stations and does not
    require interconnecting wires between the sending
    and receiving stations

102
What is the definition and purpose of a bomb?
  • Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or
    missile, dropped from an aircraft.
  • Free falling explosive weapon that may be
    unguided or smart or guided
  • Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce
    and neutralize the enemys potential war
    potential by explosion, fire, nuclear reaction,
    etc

103
What is the definition of a Rocket?
  • A weapon containing an explosive section and a
    propulsion section that is unable to change its
    direction of movement once fired

104
What is the definition of a Missile?
  • A vehicle containing an explosive section,
    propulsion section and a guidance section that is
    able to change direction or movement after being
    fired.

105
What is the definition and purpose of a Mine?
  • Underwater explosive put into position by ships,
    submarines, or aircraft that explodes only when a
    target comes near or in contact with it.
  • Primary objective is to effectively defend or
    control vital straits, ports, convoy anchorages
    or seaward coastal barriers

106
What is the definition and purpose of a Torpedo?
  • Self-propelled underwater missile used against
    surface and underwater targets.
  • They are designed to search, detect, attack and
    destroy submarines and ships

107
Explain the purpose of a Circuit Breaker and a
Fuse
  • Circuit Breaker- protective device that opens a
    circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined
    value. Can be reset
  • Fuse- Protective device inserted in-line with a
    circuit, designed to melt or break when current
    is increased beyond a specified value. Cannot be
    reset

108
Explain the components of Ohms Law (EIR)
  • Voltage (E)- the driving force behind current.
  • Current(I)- the flow of electrons
  • Resistance (R)- opposing force to the flow of
    electrons.

109
Airfield Familiarization
110
Define aircraft handling
  • A general term that describes any movement of
    aircraft or associated equipment

111
State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi
signals
  • Used by all branches of the Armed Forces so that
    there will be no misunderstanding when signalman
    of one service is signaling a pilot of another

112
State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line
and around aircraft
  • Within 50 ft of aircraft- 5 mph
  • On runways, taxiways, parking ramps, and working
    areas- 10 mph

113
What is the maximum towing speed of an aircraft
  • As fast as the slowest walker

114
Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements
  • Initial
  • Intermediate
  • Permanent
  • Heavy Weather

115
What is the purpose of emergency shore based
recovery equipment
  • To arrest an aircraft and stop it in the shortest
    distance in emergency situations such as blown
    tire, landing gear not down, etc

116
What is the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier
  • Designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail
    hooks, but the aircraft must have a nose wheel.

117
What is the minimum Personal Protective Equipment
(PPE) required during routine maintenance
  • Work area should be assessed for hazards and each
    worker given and briefed on the proper PPE for
    that area

118
What is the minimal PPE required during flight
operations
  • Cranial
  • Jersey (appropriate color)
  • Goggles
  • Sound Attenuators
  • Flight Deck Shoes
  • Flotation Gear
  • Survival Light
  • Whistle

119
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with
intakes
  • Suction is the ever present hazard when engines
    are in operation. Personnel should stand clear
    and ensure debris is kept clear

120
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with
exhaust
  • The 2 most serious hazards are high gas
    temperatures and high velocity
  • During engine start up excess fuel can accumulate
    in the tailpipe causing flames to shoot out

121
What safety precaution should personnel use with
working around propellers
  • Personnel should NOT approach or depart an
    aircraft with the propellers turning.

122
What safety precaution should personnel observe
when working around rotor blades
  • Personnel should NOT approach or depart a
    helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or
    disengaged

123
What safety precautions should be observed when
working around hot brakes?
  • Never face the side of the wheel, as a tire
    explosion will travel along the line of the axle
  • Always approach the wheel from forward or aft

124
Explain the significance of the runway numbering
system
  • Runways are normally numbered in relation to
    their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest
    10 degrees.
  • If there are two or three parallel runways, they
    will be designated as Left (L), Right (R), or
    Center (C)

125
Explain the significance of Threshold Markings
  • Runways 200 feet wide have 10 stripes marking the
    landing threshold, each 12 wide by 150 feet long
    that designate the landing area
  • For runways less than 200 feet wide, the markings
    cover the width of the runway less 20 feet on
    both sides.

126
Explain the significance of the Airfield Lighting
System
  • Install to provide visual guidance at night and
    under low visibility conditions
  • Systems are standardized by the Air Force, Navy
    and FAA to present a uniform appearance.
  • When shut down the following lights remain on
    Navigable airspace obstruction lights and
    rotating beacons

127
Explain the significance of the arm/dearm areas
  • An area where ordnance is changed from a state of
    safe condition to a state of readiness

128
Explain the significance of the Overrun area
  • Provides a reasonably effective deceleration area
    for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
  • Some are paved and some have yellow chevrons
    across them

129
Explain the significance of the Parking Apron
  • Used for parking, servicing and loading aircraft

130
Explain the purpose of the Wind Indicator
Airfield Rotating Beacon Tower Visual
Communications
  • Wind Indicator- Provides a method of prompt
    issuance of wind directions and velocities to
    pilots
  • Used to identify the airports location, rotation
    is clockwise when viewed from above
  • Coordination device between the radar controller
    and the control tower. Provides a sequence of
    lights and switches that supplement other
    circuits and serve to reduce voice contact
    between the two

131
What is the flashing rate on a airfield rotating
beacon?
  • 12 to 15 flashes per minute

132
What is TACAN?
  • Tactical Air Navigation system- uses a bearing
    determining system to determine aircraft position
    and distance from the TACAN station. Primary
    navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft

133
Explain the purpose of Crash/Rescue
  • Serves to effect rescue of personnel from damaged
    aircraft on the flight deck, fight fires, make
    minor emergency repairs to the flight deck

134
What is the compass calibration pad
  • A magnetically quite area where the aircraft
    compass is calibrated. A minimum of 1 area is
    provided at every airport

135
Explain the significance of the Liquid Oxygen
(LOX) exchange area
  • Designated area used to service aircraft which
    require LOX

136
LOX has a temperature and expansion rate of what
  • Temperature- - 297 degrees F
  • Expansion Rate- 860 - 1

137
List the safety concerns when working in the LOX
exchange area
  • Area must be kept free from flammable materials
    such as wood, cloth, paper, oil, or kerosene

138
Naval Aircraft
139
Identify the following types of squadrons HC,
HCS, HM, HS, HSL, HT
  • HC- Helicopter Combat Support
  • HCS Helicopter Combat Support Special Squadron
    (Combat rescue)
  • HM- Helicopter Mine Countermeasures
  • HS- Helicopter Antisubmarine
  • HSL- Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
  • HT- Helicopter Training

140
Identify the following types of squadrons VAQ,
VAW, VC, VF, VFA, VMFA, VP
  • VAQ- Tactical Electronic Warfare
  • VAW- Carrier Airborne Early Warning
  • VC- Fleet Composite (Utility Air Services)
  • VF- Fighter
  • VFA- Strike Fighter
  • VMFA- Marine Fighter Attack
  • VP- Patrol

141
Identify the following type of squadrons VQ, VR,
VRC, VS VT, VX/VXE
  • VQ- Fleet Air Reconnaissance
  • VR- Aircraft Logistics Support
  • VRC- Carrier Logistics Support
  • VS- Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare
  • VT- Training
  • VX- Test and Evaluation
  • VXE- Antarctic Development

142
What are the missions of the following aircraft
C-2, EA-6B, E-2, F/A-18, F-14, HH-60F/H
  • C-2- Carrier Logistics Support
  • EA-6B- Tactical Electronic Warfare
  • E-2- Carrier Early Airborne Warning
  • F/A-18- Fighter/Attach
  • F-14- Fighter
  • HH-60F/H- Anti-Submarine Warfare

143
Aviation Capable Ships
144
Identify the following class of ships AE, AD,
AFS, AS, AO, AOE
  • AE- Ammunition Ship
  • AD- Destroyer Tender
  • AFS- Combat Stores Ship
  • AS- Submarine Tender
  • AO- Oilier
  • AOE- Oilier / Ammunition Support Ship

145
Identify the following class of ships CG,
CV/CVN, DD/DDG, FFG
  • CG- Guided Missile Cruiser
  • CV- Air Craft Carrier (Non-Nuclear)
  • CVN- Air Craft Carrier (Nuclear)
  • DD- Destroyer
  • DDG- Guided Missile Destroyer
  • FFG- Guided Missile Frigates

146
Identify the following class of ships LCC, LHA,
LHD, LPD, LPH, LSD, MCS
  • LCC- Amphibious Command Ship
  • LHA- Amphibious Assault Ship
  • LHD- Amphibious Warfare Ship
  • LPD- Amphibious Transport Dock
  • LPH- Amphibious Assault Ship
  • LSD- Dock Landing Ship
  • MCS- Mine Countermeasures Support Ship

147
Other Ships and Submarines
148
Identify the following classes of ships ATF,
ARS, ASR, AR, MCM, MHC, PC, SSBN, SSN
  • ATF- Fleet Ocean Tug
  • ARS- Rescue and Salvage Ship
  • ASR- Submarine Rescue Ship
  • AR- Repair Ship
  • MCM- Mine Countermeasures Ship
  • MHC- Coastal Mine Hunters
  • PC- Patrol Craft
  • SSBN- Ballistic Missile Submarine (Nuclear)
  • SSN- Submarine (Nuclear)

149
Chemical, Biological Radiological Warfare (CBR)
150
Define the term Chemical Warfare
  • Intentional use of lethal or non-lethal chemical
    agents to produce casualties, harass or
    temporarily incapacitate and demoralize
    personnel, or contaminate or destroy areas,
    equipment or supplies.

151
Define the term Biological Warfare
  • Intentional use of living organisms to disable or
    destroy people or their domestic animals, to
    damage crops, and/or to deteriorate their
    supplies

152
Define the term Radiological warfare
  • The deliberate use of radiological weapons to
    produce injury and death to man

153
Describe the purpose of the MCU-2/P
  • Provides protection for the face, eyes, nose,
    throat, and lungs. Provides filtration of CBR
    agents. The mask does not provide oxygen and
    should not be used against smoke or toxic gases
    such as carbon monoxide

154
Describe the chemical protective over-garment
  • Treated with chemicals that neutralize blister
    agent vapors and spray, but do not stop
    penetration by liquid agents. Consists of
    trousers, hip length jumper with attached hood,
    and associated gloves and foot coverings.

155
Describe wet-weather clothing
  • Clothing that protects ordinary clothing and skin
    from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive
    particles. Includes a parka, trousers, rubber
    boots, and gloves

156
Discuss the use of Atropine / 2 Pan Chloride auto
injector
  • Used for nerve agent casualties
  • Issued in automatic injectors for self-aid
  • If contaminated by nerve agent injections are
    give in the thigh

157
Discuss the two types of dosimeters
  • IM-143- self-reading pocket dosimeter about the
    size of a pen. Measures exposure to radiation
    over a period of time
  • DT-60- high-range casualty dosimeter that must be
    placed in a special computer to determine
    exposure level of gamma radiation

158
List the 4 types of chemical casualty agents and
their symptoms
  • Chocking- dryness of throat, coughing, tightness
    across chest, headache, nausea and watery eyes
  • Nerve- runny nose, tightness of chest with
    difficulty breathing, contraction of pupils,
    nausea, cramps, headache, coma, convulsion
  • Blood- Breathing becomes deep within a few
    seconds, violent convulsions over 20 to 30
    seconds, stops breathing regularly after 1
    minute, heart stops a few minutes after exposure
  • Blister- redness of skin, intense itching,
    blisters, stiffness, throbbing pain and swelling

159
Describe a high altitude air burst
  • Point of detonation is above 100,000 feet
  • Causes widespread disturbances in the ionosphere
    effecting radio waves and other electromagnetic
    radiations

160
Describe an air burst
  • Develops a huge fireball that does not touch the
    earths surface. All materials within the
    fireball are vaporized. Vapors condense creating
    a highly radioactive cloud.

161
Describe a surface burst
  • Develops a fireball that does touch the earths
    surface. Vast amounts of surface material is
    vaporized and pulled into the cloud and then
    returns to the earth as fallout

162
Describe a shallow underwater burst
  • Fireball is formed but is normally not visible.
    Explosion creates a large bubble or cavity upon
    rising to the surface, expels steam, gases, and
    debris into the air. Water forms in a column
    that may reach several thousand feet. A highly
    destructive shock wave is formed and large wave
    are created.

163
Describe a deep underwater burst
  • Same a shallow underwater burst, but more of the
    impact is absorbed by the deep ocean currents
    contaminating more water

164
Describe blast effect
  • Injuries result from direct action of the air
    shock wave on the body. Secondary blast injuries
    are caused by collapsing structures and debris
    flung about by the blast

165
Describe flashburn/blindness
  • Primary burns are a direct result of thermal
    radiation. Secondary burns result from fires
    caused by the explosion.
  • Blindness is caused by the intense flash of light
    and can last between 15 45 minutes.

166
Describe radiation hazards of a nuclear explosion
  • Body is contaminated by Alpha Beta particles
    and Gamma rays. The greatest concern is
    residual radiation .

167
Describe the Electromagnetic Pulse of a nuclear
blast
  • The pulse lasts for only fractions of a second
    and can induce large currents in cables and
    long-lead wires causing the burn out of
    electronic or electrical equipment.

168
Define and discuss the Mission Oriented
Protective Posture Level I
  • Suspected Attack
  • Gas masks are issue to all hands and kept at
    battle stations. An inventory of stowed
    chemical/biological defense equipment is
    conducted.

169
Define and discuss the Mission Oriented
Protective Posture Level II
  • Possible attack
  • Gas masks are carried by each person onboard.
    Preposition decontamination supplies at DECON
    stations. Set material condition ZEBRA (modified)

170
Define and discuss the Mission Oriented
Protective Posture Level III
  • Probable attack
  • New filters are installed on masks. Don
    protective overgarment. Stow personal
    decontamination kit in carrier. Go to general
    quarters and set material condition ZEBRA. Post
    detection and monitoring teams and activate
    counter measure wash down system intermittently.

171
Define and discuss the Mission Oriented
Protective Posture Level IV
  • Imminent attack
  • Don gas mask and secure the hood. Continuous
    monitoring of detection equipment. Set material
    condition Circle William and activate wash down
    system continuously.

172
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures
Standardization (NATOPS) Fundamentals
173
What instruction covers the NATOPS General Flight
and Operating Instructions
  • OPNAVINST 3710.7Q

174
What is the purpose of NATOPS?
  • Positive approach towards improving combat
    readiness and achieving a substantial reduction
    in aircraft mishaps.
  • Prescribe general flight and operating
    instructions and procedures applicable to the
    operation of all naval aircraft and related
    activities

175
Explain general aircraft pre-start procedures
  • Wheels shall be chocked and parking brake set
  • Where applicable, install intake screens
  • Inspect area for FOD
  • When engine is started by non-pilot personnel the
    plane shall be tied down
  • Adequate fire extinguishing equipment shall be
    stationed in the immediate vicinity

176
What is the meaning of WARNING as applied to
NATOPS
  • An operating procedure, practice or condition
    that may result in injury or death if not
    carefully observed or followed.

177
What is the meaning of Caution as applied to
NATOPS
  • An operating procedure, practice, or condition,
    that may result in damage to equipment in not
    carefully observed or followed.

178
What is the meaning of NOTE as applied to NATOPS
  • An operating procedure, practice or condition
    that must be emphasized

179
What is the meaning of SHALL as applied to
NATOPS
  • Means a procedure that is mandatory

180
What is the meaning of SHOULD as applied to
NATOPS
  • Means a procedure that is recommended

181
What is the meaning of MAY as applied to NATOPS
  • May and need not mean the procedure is
    optional

182
What is the meaning of WILL as applied to NATOPS
  • Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree
    of requirement for application of a procedure

183
What is the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation?
  • Intended to evaluate individual and unit
    compliance by observing and grading adherence to
    NATOPS procedures.

184
What is the purpose of the Naval Flight Records
Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)
  • Provides a standardized flight activity data
    collection system. NAVFLIRS is the single-source
    document for recording flight data and is
    applicable in specific areas to aircraft
    simulators. Prepared for each attempt at flight.
    OPNAV 3710/4

185
State the purpose of master flight files
  • The only official flight record of naval aircraft
    and shall be maintained IAW OPNAVINST 3710.7

186
Explain the aircraft visual identification system
for COMNAVAIRLANT
  • First character shall be A through M second
    character shall be A through Z

187
Explain the aircraft visual identification system
for COMNAVAIRPAC
  • First character shall be N through Z second
    character A through Z

188
Explain the aircraft visual identification system
for CNATRA
  • First character shall be A through G there is no
    second character

189
General Administration
190
Discuss the scope of a COs authority
responsibility and what establishes it
  • CO is ultimately responsible for those under
    his/her command and their actions
  • COs authority responsibility are established
    by U.S. Navy Regulations, general orders,
    customs, and tradition

191
What are the Executive Officers primary
responsibilities
  • The XO is primarily responsible for the
    organization, performance of duty, and good order
    and discipline of the entire command.

192
What policy areas is the Command Master Chief
mainly involved with
  • Policies pertinent to moral, welfare, job
    satisfaction, discipline, utilization and
    training of enlisted personnel

193
What does CMEO stand for and what are program is
the individual responsible for
  • Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer
  • Provides equal opportunity training to the
    command, including the education and emphasis on
    giving equal opportunity to all members
    regardless of race, creed, or religious preference

194
The position of OMBUDSMAN is a link between who?
  • Command and Families

195
What are the 4 major areas the Drug and Alcohol
Program Advisor should be focused on?
  • Drug and Alcohol
  • Education
  • Rehabilitation
  • Identification
  • Enforcement

196
Discuss the purpose of personnel counseling
  • To discuss personal problems that may require
    help to solve. Key element is to recognize the
    scope of the problem and determining if
    specialists such as a chaplain, medical officer,
    or legal maybe be needed.

197
Discuss the purpose of performance counseling
  • Counsel personnel on a regular basis to let them
    know how they are performing and what areas need
    improvement

198
Describe the effects of the evaluation on the
type of discharge
  • Members must maintain an average of 2.7 and 3.0
    in conduct average, otherwise a general
    discharge is awarded

199
Describe the effects of the evaluation on
advancement
  • Single most important factor for determining who
    will be selected for advancement
  • 4.0 Early Promote
  • 3.8 Must Promote
  • 3.6 Promotable
  • 3.4 Progressing
  • 2.0 Significant Problems

200
Describe the effects of the evaluation on Good
Conduct Medals
  • A good conduct medal will not be awarded to
    anyone with a performance mark below 3.0 or prior
    Non-Judicial Punishment or Courts Martial
    conviction within a three year timeframe

201
Describe the effects of the evaluation on
reenlistment
  • A member with marks under 3.0 will not normally
    be able to reenlist.

202
Describe the effects of the evaluation on
assignment
  • Certain assignments require good evaluations.
    Requirements can be found in the ENLTRANSMAN
    Chapter 9

203
Explain the use of a naval message
  • Principal means by which commanders communicate.
    They are written thoughts, ideas or information
    expressed briefly and to the point. It is
    transmitted electronically to avoid delays.

204
Explain the purpose of the following message
components Date Time Group Classification,
Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
Passing Instructions
  • Date Time Group- Includes the date and time
    expressed in Greenwich Mean Time. (example
    310800ZOCT02)
  • Classification- Denotes if the message contains
    Confidential, Secret, or Top Secret information
  • SSIC- 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the
    subject of a document. Required on all messages
  • Passing Instructions- These guides assist in the
    automatic internal routing of messages and
    include flagwords, codewords, etc

205
What is contained on each of the following
service record pages Page 2, Page 4, Page 13
  • Page 2- Emergency Data. Used as a reference for
    beneficiary data should a service member die on
    active duty
  • Page 4- Enlisted Qualifications History.
    Chronological history of occupational and
    training related qualifications, awards, and
    commendations
  • Page 13- Administrative Remarks. Chronological
    record of significant miscellaneous entries which
    are not provided for elsewhere

206
State the purpose and discuss the Enlisted
Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
  • A monthly statement of an activitys enlisted
    personnel.
  • Lists all individuals assigned and provides a
    summary of the present and future manning status.

207
What is an Operation Report (OPREP) used for
  • Used to provide National Command Authorities and
    appropriate naval commanders with immediate
    notification of any accidental or unauthorized
    incident involving a possible detonation of a
    nuclear weapon which could create the risk of
    outbreak of nuclear war

208
What is a Movement Report (MOVEREP) used for
  • Primary source of location information concerning
    ships. Assist the chain of command in the
    knowledge of locations, tracks, destinations of
    all vessels for emergency or operational use

209
What is a Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ) used
for
  • Submitted by a ship prior to entering port to
    notify the proper commands of its logistics
    requirements while visiting

210
What is a Status of Requirement and Training
Support (SORTS) used for
  • Reports the ships status of conditions of
    readiness in all warfare areas and the ability to
    conduct operations

211
What is a Situation Report (SITREP) used for
  • Used by any unit commanding officer, officer in
    charge, or other commander to provide appropriate
    operational commanders and higher authority with
    timely notification for any incident not meeting
    OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria.
    Includes hoax bomb threats, violent crimes,
    discrimination, or suicide or attempted suicide

212
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
213
What instruction covers the NAMP program
  • OPNAVINST 4790.2G

214
State the objective of the Naval Aviation
Maintenance Program
  • Supports naval operations by the upkeep of
    aircraft and associated Support Equipment to the
    assigned level of maintenance.

215
State the titles and briefly describe the five
volumes of NAMP
  • Volume I- Concepts, policies, organizations,
    maintenance support procedures, and
    Organizational and Intermediate Level Maintenance
  • Volume II- Depot Level Maintenance
  • Volume III- Maintenance Data System (MDS)
  • Volume IV- Aviation 3M data processing
    requirements
  • Volume V- Standard Operating Procedures

216
Describe the three levels of aviation maintenance
  • Organizational- Performed by an operating unit
    day to day in support of its own operations
  • Intermediate- Performed by designated maintenance
    activities in support of using organizations.
  • Depot- Performed at naval aviation industrial
    establishments to ensure continued flying
    integrity of airframes and flight systems during
    subsequent operational service periods

217
Discuss the responsibilities of the Maintenance
Officer
  • Responsible for the accomplishment of the
    maintenance department mission. Administers
    procedures in accordance with NAMP.

218
Discuss the responsibilities of the Aircraft
Maintenance Officer
  • Assistant Department Head. Assist the MO in the
    performance of duties and keep the MO fully
    informed of matters concerning the department.
    Receives the same training, and is qualified
    under the guidelines as the MO

219
Discuss the responsibilities of the Maintenance /
Material Control Officer
  • Responsible for the overall production and
    material support of the department.
    Responsibilities include coordinating and
    monitoring the department workload, maintaining
    liaison between supported activities and supply,
    reviewing Maintenance Data Reports

220
Discuss the basic responsibilities of the
maintenance/production control
  • Maintenance control strives to maintain full
    mission capable aircraft.
  • Production control strives to process item
    received to keep all non-mission capable and
    partial-mission-capable parts processed and back
    to the respective command

221
Describe the difference between scheduled and
unscheduled maintenance
  • Schedule maintenance is the program of formally
    ensuring timely discovery and correction of
    defects. These are periodic prescribed
    inspections and servicing of equipment, done on
    hours, cycles or landing and calendar or mileage
    basis
  • Unscheduled maintenance is done on discrepancies
    and deficiencies found during operations. It
    consists of fault isolation or troubleshooting,
    repair, replacement, test, and calibration

222
What is the purpose of the daily inspection
  • Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater
    depth that the turnaround or post flight
    inspections. Valid for 72 hours provided that no
    flight occurs during this period and no
    maintenance, other than servicing, is performed.
    Aircraft may be flown for 24 hours without
    another daily.

223
What is the purpose of the turnaround inspection
  • Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity
    of the aircraft for flight, verify proper
    servicing, and detect degradation that may have
    occurred during the previous flight. Valid for
    24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during
    this period and no maintenance other than
    servicing is performed

224
What is the purpose of the special inspection
  • Inspection with a prescribed interval other than
    daily, calendar, or phase. Special inspections
    always have a number in them 14 day, 2000
    landing, 2000 hours. These intervals are
    specified in the Periodic Maintenance Information
    Card deck

225
What is the purpose of the conditional inspection
  • Unscheduled conditions requiring and inspection
    such as a bird strike inspection, lighting strike
    inspection, hard-landing inspection, Foreign
    Object Damage (FOD) inspection

226
What is the purpose of the phase inspection
  • This inspection divides the total scheduled
    maintenance requirement into smaller packages.
    Inspects the entire aircraft over a period phases
    (Cycle A, B, C, D) For F/A-18 phases occur
    over 800 hours

227
What is the purpose of the acceptance inspection
  • Performed at the time a reporting custodian
    accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any
    source, and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or
    other major depot level maintenance. Includes
    inventory of equipment listed in the Aircraft
    Inventory Record (AIR), verification of cartridge
    actuated devices, escape propulsion systems,
    configuration verification, hydraulic fluid
    sampling, daily inspection, and complete a
    functional check flight

228
What is the purpose of the transfer inspection
  • Performed at the time a reporting custodian
    transfer an aircraft or support equipment. It
    includes an inventory of all items listed on the
    AIR, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid
    sampling, and daily inspection

229
State the purpose of a Functional Check Flight
(FCF)
  • Used to determine whether the airframe, power
    plant, accessories and equipment are functioning
    in accordance with predetermined standards which
    subjected to the intended operating environment.
    Completed at completion of SDLM, acceptance,
    after engine installation / reinstallation,
    flight control surface component replacement,
    attitude system component replacement, certain
    PHASE inspections, or if the the aircraft has not
    been flown for 30 days.

230
State the purpose of the Weight and Balance
Program
  • Provides service activities with a standard
    system of field weight and balance control. It
    also gives the maximum operating weights, center
    of gravity restrictions and method of loading
    that is satisfactory for safe flight.

231
State the purpose of the Aircraft Log Book
  • Contains the history of the aircraft and includes
    the following sections
  • Non-aging record
  • Flight Time
  • Inspection Records
  • Repair and Rework
  • Technical Directive
  • Miscellaneous history
  • Preservation / De-preservation record
  • Installed explosive devices section
  • Inventory Record
  • Assembly service record
  • Equipment History Record
  • Scheduled Removal Component Cards
  • Aviation Life Support Equipment Records
  • Seat Survival Kit Records, and Aeronautical
    Equipment Service Records (AESRs)

232
Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook
entries?
  • Anyone designated in writing by the Commanding
    Officer
  • Usually the Maintenance Officer, Maintenance
    Senior Chief Petty Officer, Maintenance Chief
    Petty Officer

233
Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for
flight
  • Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Senior Chief
    Petty Officer, or maintenance control officer.
    Other persons authorized and designated in
    writing by the Commanding Officer

234
Discuss the Maintenance Requirement Card (MRC)
  • Provides instructions required for the efficient
    performance of scheduled maintenance tasks. Each
    card contains tasks related to a particular
    system, subsystem, area, or component using a
    logical sequence for accomplishment.
  • Identifies the recommend rating, performance
    time, work area or zone involved, support
    equipment needed, consumables, replacement parts,
    and assistance requirement.

235
Discuss the Periodic Maintenance Information
Cards (PMIC)
  • Used to identify scheduled or forced removal
    items and their replacement intervals. They
    contain component or assembly removal and
    replacement, airframe structural life limits,
    maintenance requirements system indexes such as
    MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change
    implementation cards

236
Define an Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
  • Contains illustrations and part numbers for all
    parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is
    issued. Contains information required for
    ordering parts, and for identifying parts and
    arrangements of parts in assemblies

237
Define Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs)
  • Contains instructions for O and I level
    maintenance and servicing of a specific model
    aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task to
    the responsible maintenance level

238
What is the purpose of the Quality Assurance
program?
  • Prevent the occurrence of defects. The
    achievement of QA depends on prevention,
    knowledge and special skills

239
Explain the responsibilities of a Quality
Assurance Representative (QAR)
  • Direct representative of the CO for ensuring
    safety of flight of the item concerned. Certify
    that the work involved has been personally
    inspected by them, that it has been properly
    completed, and is in accordance with current
    instructions and directives

240
Explain the responsibilities of a Collateral Duty
Quality Assurance Representative (CDQAR)
  • Assigned on a temporary or permanent basis. May
    be assigned when temporary sever shortages of
    skills will not support the assignment of a QAR.

241
Explain the responsibilities of a Collateral Duty
Inspector (CDI)
  • Assigned to production work centers to inspect
    all work and comply with the QA inspections
    required during all maintenance actions performed
    by their respective work centers.

242
What is the purpose of a Special QA Audit
  • Conducted to evaluate sp
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