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Psychology is commonly defined as:

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Title: Who is the founding father of Psychology? Author: R. Desiree Lewellen Last modified by: rlewellen Created Date: 11/14/2004 6:45:41 PM Document presentation format – PowerPoint PPT presentation

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Title: Psychology is commonly defined as:


1
Psychology is commonly defined as
  • The study of behavior
  • The study of the mind
  • The study of behavior and mental processes
  • The study of early childhood
  • c. The study of behavior and mental processes

2
Which of the following are the goals of
psychology?
  • Describe, manipulate, control and examine
    behavior
  • Describe, explain, predict and change behavior
  • Predict, control, examine and change behavior
  • Manipulate, control, explain and change behavior
  • b. Describe, explain, predict and change behavior

3
Psychology often questions to what extent we are
controlled by biological and genetic factors or
by the environment and learning. This ongoing
debate is known as the _____.
  • Nature vs. Nurture controversy
  • Mind vs. Body Dualism
  • Interactionist position
  • Biopsychosocial Model
  • A. Nature-Nurture Controversy

4
Applied research is conducted to study __________.
  • How people apply knowledge in an educational
    setting
  • Theoretical questions that may or may not have
    real-world applications
  • The goals of psychology
  • A specific real-world problem
  • D. A specific real-world problem

5
The experimental group, in an experiment, is the
group in which the participants _____.
  • Do not receive the independent variable
  • Receive the dependent variable
  • Do not receive the DV
  • Receive the IV
  • D. Receive the IV

6
The total of all possible cases from which a
sample is selected is called the __________.
  • subject pool
  • population
  • selection group
  • control group
  • B) population

7
The first step in the scientific method is _____.
  • Forming a testable hypothesis
  • Developing a theory
  • Reviewing the literature of existing theories
  • Designing a study
  • C. Reviewing the literature of existing theories

8
The ______ variable is the variable that is
measured.
  • Independent
  • Intervening
  • Controlled
  • Dependent
  • D) Dependent

9
The tendency of experimenters to influence the
results of their experiment in an expected
direction is called ____.
  • Experimenter bias
  • Control bias
  • Observational bias
  • Experimental bias
  • A) Experimenter bias

10
A hypothesis is derived from a ______.
  • idea
  • research paper
  • brainstorming
  • theory
  • D) theory

11
A procedure to ensure that each individual has
the same probability as any other of being in a
given group is called _____.
  • Random selection
  • Random assignment
  • Representative selection
  • Representative assignment
  • B. Random assignment

12
Cells within your body specialized for conducting
information are called ____?
  • Dendrites
  • Neurons
  • Axons
  • Nucleotides
  • b. Neurons

13
The three major parts of a neuron are ____.
  • Glia, dendrites, and myelin
  • Myelin, dendrites, and axon
  • Dendrites, axon and cell body
  • Axon, glia, and myelin
  • c. Dendrites, axon and cell body

14
The ____ consists of all the nerves that connect
to sensory receptors and control skeletal muscles
  • Parasympathetic nervous system
  • Spinal cord
  • Somatic nervous system
  • Action potential
  • c. Somatic nervous system

15
___ provide structural, nutritional, and other
support for the neuron, as well as some
communication functions
  • Dendrites
  • Axons
  • Nurturing bodies
  • Glial cells
  • d. Glial cells

16
Chemical messengers that are secreted into the
synapse are called ____.
  • Ions
  • Neurotransmitters
  • Neurocommunicators
  • Neuromodulators
  • b. Neurotransmitters

17
The synapse is the point where ____.
  • The soma attaches to the dendrite
  • Neurotransmitters are manufactured
  • Information transfers from neuron to neuron
  • The action potential begins
  • c. Information transfers from neuron to neuron

18
If you are accidentally hit on the head and you
see flashes of light, most likely the blow
activated cells in the ____.
  • Frontal lobes
  • Temporal lobes
  • Occipital lobes
  • Parietal lobes
  • c. Occipital lobes

19
The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
lobes make up the ____
  • Brain
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Subcortex
  • Brain stem
  • b. Cerebral cortex

20
The major divisions of the central nervous system
are ___.
  • Sympathetic and parasympathetic
  • Somatic and autonomic
  • Gray matter and white matter
  • Brain and spinal cord
  • d. Brain and spinal cord

21
The parasympathetic nervous system is dominant
when a person is ___.
  • Stressed
  • Relaxed
  • Frightened
  • Angry
  • b. Relaxed

22
The parasympathetic and sympathetic are the major
divisions of the ____ nervous system
  • Automatic
  • Somatic
  • Central
  • Autonomic
  • d. Autonomic

23
The principle whereby an axon either fires or
does not fire an action potential is called the
_____
  • Sodium-potassium
  • Axon terminal
  • Shotgun
  • All-or-none law
  • d. All-or-none law

24
Damage to the medulla can lead to loss of ____.
  • Vision
  • Respiration
  • Hearing
  • Smell
  • b. Respiration

25
The cerebellum, the thalamus, and the
hypothalamus are all ____.
  • Lower-level brain structures
  • Cortical areas
  • Brain stem areas
  • Spinal cord areas
  • a. Lower-level brain structures

26
Split-brain research has indicated that, in most
people, the left hemisphere is largely
responsible for _____ abilities
  • Musical
  • Spatial
  • Artistic
  • Language
  • d. Language

27
Neurons are the basic units in the _____.
  • Nervous system
  • Synapses
  • Dendrites
  • Body
  • a. Nervous system

28
_____ is an organisms awareness of its own self
and surroundings.
  • Awareness
  • Consciousness
  • Alertness
  • Central processing
  • a. consciousness

29
_____ processes are mental activities that
require minimal attention, without affecting
other activities.
  • Controlled
  • Peripheral
  • Conscious
  • Automatic
  • d. Automatic

30
Biological rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle
are called _____.
  • Circadian rhythms
  • Synchronisms
  • Diurnal circuits
  • Noctural transmissions
  • a. Circadian rhythms

31
The _____ theory says that sleep allows us to
replenish what was depleted during daytime
activities.
  • Repair/restoration
  • Evolutionary/circadian
  • Supply/demand
  • Conservation of energy
  • a. repair/restoration

32
Insomnia occurs when you persistently _____.
  • Have difficulty staying awake
  • Go to sleep too early
  • Awake too early
  • All of the above
  • c. Awake too early

33
_____ is a disease marked by sudden and
irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking
hours.
  • Dyssomnia
  • Parasomnia
  • Narcolepsy
  • Sleep apnea
  • c. Narcolepsy

34
A chemical that blocks the action of a
neurotransmitter is called a/an _____.
  • Synaptic inhibitor
  • Antagonist
  • Alternator
  • Receptor-blocker
  • b. Antagonist

35
A mental desire or craving to achieve the effects
produced by a drug is known as _____.
  • Withdrawal effects
  • Dependency
  • Psychological dependence
  • Physical dependence
  • c. Psychological dependence

36
Requiring larger and more frequent doses of a
drug to produce a desired effect is
characteristic of _____.
  • Withdrawal
  • Tolerance
  • Psychoactive dependence
  • All of the above
  • b. Tolerance

37
Which of the following drugs is a central nervous
system stimulant?
  • Amphetamine
  • Alcohol
  • Heroin
  • Barbiturates
  • a. amphetamine

38
Which of the following is NOT classified as a
hallucinogen?
  • Mescaline
  • Psilocybin
  • Amphetamines
  • LSD
  • d. LSD

39
_____ drugs produce sensory distortions or
perceptual illusions.
  • Stimulants
  • Opiates
  • Depressants
  • Hallucinogens
  • d. Hallucinogens

40
EEG is the abbreviation for _____, which is used
to record brain waves.
  • Electrical emissions graph
  • Electroencephalograph
  • Electro-energy grams
  • Even elephants get grumpy
  • b. Electroencephalograph

41
Your breathing is regular, your heart rate and
blood pressure are slowing, and you can be
awakened easily. It is most likely that you are
in _____.
  • A hypnogogic transition between wakefulness and
    sleep
  • A daydreaming state
  • Stage 1 sleep
  • Stage 2 sleep
  • c. Stage 1 sleep

42
A relatively permanent change in behavior as a
result of practice or experience is the
definition of ___.
  • Learning
  • Conditioning
  • Behavior modification
  • Modeling
  • a. Learning

43
When your mouth waters at the sight of a
chocolate cake, it is an example of ____.
  • Operant conditioning
  • Social learning
  • Vicarious conditioning
  • Classical conditioning
  • d. Classical conditioning

44
Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned STIMULUS is the ____.
  • Bee
  • Sting
  • Fear
  • Crying
  • b. Sting

45
Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned RESPONSE is the ____.
  • Bee
  • Sting
  • Fear
  • Crying
  • c. Fear

46
Which of the following is the proper sequence of
events in classical conditioning?
  • UCS-CS-UCR
  • CS-UCS-UCR
  • UCR-UCS-CS
  • UCR-CS-UCS
  • b. CS-UCS-UCR

47
Higher order conditioning occurs when an____.
  • Previously neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned
    response
  • Neutral stimulus is paired with a previously
    conditioned stimulus
  • Neutral stimulus is paired with unconditioned
    stimulus
  • Unconditioned response is paired with a
    conditioned stimulus
  • b. Neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned
    stimulus

48
In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when
the ____.
  • Conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned response
  • Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned stimulus
  • Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned stimulus
  • Unconditioned stimulus is ambiguous
  • b. Conditioned response is no longer paired with
    the unconditioned stimulus

49
Anything that causes an increase in a response is
a ___.
  • Conditioned stimulus
  • Reinforcement
  • Punishment
  • Unconditioned stimulus
  • b. Reinforcement

50
Anything that causes a decrease in a response is
a/an ____.
  • Conditioned stimulus
  • Reinforcement
  • Punishment
  • Unconditioned stimulus
  • c. Punishment

51
Negative reinforcement and punishment are ____.
  • The same
  • The best ways to learn a new behavior
  • Not the same because negative reinforcement
    increases behavior and punishment decreases
    behavior
  • Not the same, even though they both decrease
    behavior
  • c. Not the same because negative reinforcement
    increases behavior and punishment decreases
    behavior

52
Making yourself study before you go to the movies
is a good application of ____.
  • Negative reinforcement
  • Positive punishment
  • Fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement
  • The Premack principle
  • d. The Premack principle

53
Gamblers become addicted to their sport as a
result of ____.
  • Previously generalized response discrimination
  • Previously extinguished response recovery
  • Partial (intermittent) reinforcement
  • Behavior being learned and not conditioned
  • c. Partial (intermittent) reinforcement

54
Superstitious behavior occurs because ___.
  • It has been reinforced on a fixed ratio schedule
  • The person or animal thinks the behavor causes a
    reinforcer when in reality the behavior and the
    reinforcement are not connected
  • It is reinforced on a random ration schedule
  • The behavior and the reinforcement come close in
    proximity to one another, causing the
    superstitious behavior to increase in magnitude
  • b. The person or animal thinks the behavior
    causes a reinforcer when in reality the behavior
    and the reinforcement are not connected

55
In Pavlovs classical conditioning experiments
with dogs, salivation was the ____.
  • Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
  • Conditioned response (CR)
  • Unconditioned repose (UCR)
  • Both b and c
  • c. Unconditioned repose (UCR)

56
In Watson and Rayners Little Albert experiment,
what was the neutral stimulus (NS)?
  • The sight if the experimental room
  • A loud noise
  • A rabbit
  • A rat
  • d. A rat

57
Albert Banduras social learning theory
emphasized ____.
  • Classical conditioning
  • Operant conditioning
  • Extinction
  • Modeling
  • d. Modeling

58
In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned emotional response (CER)?
  • Avoidance behavior
  • Superstitious behavior
  • Fear
  • None of the above
  • c. Fear

59
In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned stimulus?
  • The sight if the experimental room
  • A loud noise
  • A rabbit
  • A rat
  • d. A rat

60
In higher order conditioning, a neutral stimulus
is paired with ____.
  • Another neutral stimulus
  • A previously conditioned stimulus
  • Two or more unconditioned stimuli
  • Two or more unconditioned responses
  • b. A previously conditioned stimulus

61
Spontaneous recovery occurs when ___ suddenly
appears
  • Your lost wallet
  • A previously extinguished response
  • An extinct instinct
  • A forgotten stimulus- response sequence
  • b. A previously extinguished response

62
Children may learn to salivate to McDonalds
golden arches as a result of
  • Advertising
  • Classical conditioning
  • Higher-order conditioning
  • All of the above
  • d. All of the above

63
Operant conditioning is an example of ___ in
action
  • Thorndikes law of effect
  • Skinners law of reinforcement
  • Watsons rule of punishment
  • Pavlovs theory of stimulus-response
  • a. Thorndikes law of effect

64
____ are unlearned, usually satisfy a biological
need, and increase the probability of a response
  • Primary instincts
  • Secondary instincts
  • Primary reinforcers
  • Secondary reinforcers
  • c. Primary reinforcers

65
Observational learning theory suggests that we
learn many behaviors by ____.
  • Imitating others
  • Observing our inner processes
  • Teaching others
  • Shaping our own and others behaviors
  • a. Imitating others

66
In Albert Banduras classic bobo doll study,
children acted aggressively because ____.
  • They were rewarded for their behavior
  • Of observational learning
  • They were positively punished
  • All of these options
  • b. Of observational learning

67
Maintenance rehearsal _______
  • Prevents motivated forgetting
  • Prevents chunking
  • Reenters information in sensory memory
  • Reenters information in STM
  • c. Reenters information in sensory memory

68
Which of the following is a recognition test of
memory?
  • Remembering a name that goes with a face
  • A multiple choice test
  • An essay test
  • Reciting the names of the state capitals
  • b. A multiple choice test

69
You notice that you tend to do better on exam
questions from the first and last of each
chapter. The most likely explanation is the ____.
  • Anterograde amnesia effect
  • Problem of distribute practice
  • Serial position effect
  • Sleeper effect
  • c. Serial position effect

70
Short-term memory receives information from
sensory memory and from ____.
  • Long term memory
  • Working memory
  • The perceptual processing network
  • Maintenance rehearsal
  • a. Long term memory

71
The process that allows us to store more
information in short-term memory by grouping
information into units is called ____.
  • Maintenance
  • Collective organization
  • Chunking
  • Proximal closure
  • c. Chunking

72
To increase the duration and capacity of you STM
you should try ____.
  • Maintenance rehearsal
  • Chunking
  • Constructive process
  • All of the above
  • b. Chunking

73
The ____ effect suggests that people will recall
information presented at the beginning and the
end of a list better than information from the
middle of the list.
  • Recency
  • Serial position
  • Latency
  • Primacy
  • b. Serial position

74
Developmental psychologists are not interested in
___.
  • Fetal well-being
  • Age-related differences
  • Age-related similarities
  • Life after death
  • d. Life after death

75
Age at crawling, walking, and toilet training is
primarily dependant on the ____
  • Educational level of the parents
  • Specific training techniques of the childs
    caretakers
  • Maturational readiness of the child
  • Genetic influences inherited from both mother and
    father
  • c. Maturational readiness of the child

76
A ____ is the most appropriate research method
for studying age-changes across the life span.
  • Case study
  • Natural observation
  • Longitudinal study
  • Cross sectional study
  • c. Longitudinal study

77
Conception occurs when a ____
  • Fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining
  • Ovum undergoes its first cell division
  • Ejaculation occurs
  • Sperm cell unites with an ovum
  • b. Ovum undergoes its first cell division

78
Rapid cell division from conception to two weeks
is known as the ____ period
  • Fetal
  • Germinal
  • Embryonic
  • Conceptual
  • b. Germinal

79
At birth an infant cannot ____.
  • See as well as an adult
  • Recognize the taste or odor of its own mothers
    milk
  • Feel pain
  • Turn its head without help
  • a. See as well as an adult

80
The period of life when an individual first
becomes capable of reproduction is knows as ____.
  • The growth spurt
  • Adolescence
  • Puberty
  • The latency period
  • c. Puberty

81
Which of the following is correctly matched?
  • Lorenzageism
  • Piagetpermissive parenting
  • Harlowcontact comfort
  • Baumrindaccommodation
  • c. Harlowcontact comfort

82
According to Freud, infants become attached to
the caregiver that provides ____, but according
to Harlow, attachment results from____.
  • Oral pleasure contact comfort
  • Unconscious needs imprinting
  • Nourishment touching
  • None of the above
  • a. Oral pleasure contact comfort

83
Harlows research with infant monkeys and
artificial surrogate mothers indicates that ____.
  • The most important factor in infant development
    is a loving environment
  • Attachment is not essential to normal development
  • There is no significant difference in the choice
    of wire or terrycloth mother
  • The most important variable in attachment may be
    contact comfort
  • d. The most important variable in attachment may
    be contact comfort

84
According to Piaget, an infant acquires ___ when
he or she understands that people and things
continue to exist even when they cannot directly
be seen, heard or touched.
  • Conservation
  • Reversibility
  • Egocentrism
  • Object permanence
  • d. Object permanence

85
Piaget used the term egocentrism to describe the
fact that ___.
  • All children are naturally selfish during the
    first few years of life
  • Children view the world from one perspective
    (their own)
  • The childs limited logic impedes his or her
    understanding of the need to share
  • Children are unable to conserve
  • b. Children view the world from one perspective
    (their own)

86
During Piagets fourth stage of cognitive
development, adolescents first become capable of
____.
  • Egocentrism
  • Dealing effectively with transformations
  • Using language and other symbols
  • Hypothetical thinking
  • d. Hypothetical thinking

87
Today the interactionist approach to development
is supported by ____.
  • More nativists than empiricists
  • More empiricists that nativists
  • More psychologists
  • More psychiatrists than psychologists
  • c. More psychologists

88
The ____method of research may confuse genuine
age differences with cohort effects, differences
that result from specific histories of the age
group studied.
  • Cross-cultural
  • Longitudinal
  • Cross-sectional
  • All of the above
  • c. cross-sectional

89
Schemas are cognitive structures that contain
organized ideas about the world and____.
  • Expand or differentiate with expierence
  • May assimilate new information
  • May accommodate new information
  • All of the above
  • d. All of the above

90
According to Piaget, accommodation means that a
schema has ____
  • Been changed to fit new information
  • Been used to understand new information
  • Reversed itself
  • Conversed itself
  • a. Been changed to fit new information

91
Piagets four stages of cognative development
start with the sensorimoter and preoperational
stages, and end with the ____ stages
  • Assimilation and accommodation
  • Operation and abstraction
  • Concrete and formal operational
  • Concept testing and deductive reasoning
  • c. Concrete and formal operational

92
Egocentrism is present in which of Piagets
stages of cognitive development
  • Preoperational and operational
  • Preoperational only
  • Sensorimoter and preoperational
  • Sensorimoter only
  • a. Preoperational and operational

93
The child who believes the sun follows him or her
around and that trees have feelings are probably
in the ___ stage of development.
  • Preoperational
  • terrible teens
  • Concrete operational
  • Formal operational
  • a. Preoperational

94
During Kohlbergs ____ level of moral development
right and wrong are judged on the basis of
consequences
  • Conventional
  • Amoral
  • Postconventional
  • Preconventional
  • d. Preconventional

95
When people have developed their own standards of
right and wrong they are judged by Kohlbergs
theory to be at the ____ level of morality
  • Adolescent
  • Postconventional
  • Nonconventional
  • Conventional
  • b. Postconventional

96
Kohlbergs theory of moral development has been
criticized for its ____.
  • Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality
  • Political bias in favor of conservatives
  • Sexual bias in favor of women
  • Ethnic bias against anglosaxons
  • a. Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality

97
The positive or negative resolution of 8
developmental challenges is characteristic of ___
theory
  • Freuds psychosexual
  • Freuds psychoanalytic
  • Maslows hierarchecical
  • Eriksons psychosocial
  • d. Eriksons psychosocial

98
According to Erikson, the challenge faced by
infants in their first year is ____
  • a. weaning
  • b. object premanence
  • c. trust versus mistrust
  • d. toilet training
  • c. Trust versus mistrust

99
According to Erikson, the need to develop a sense
of identity is the principle task of ____.
  • The phallic stage of psychosexual development
  • adolescence
  • middle adulthood
  • The generativity versus stagnation stage of
    development
  • b. adolescence

100
According to Erikson, the inner conflict during
which an individual examines his or her life and
values and makes decisions about life roles is
called a(n) ____ crisis.
  • Midlife
  • Climactieric
  • Integrity
  • Identity
  • d. Identity

101
In Eriksons final stage of psychosocial
development, adults may ____ .
  • Regret lost opportunities
  • Become despondent
  • Review their accomplishments
  • Any of the above
  • d. Any of the above

102
Moral judgment is self centered and based on
obtaining rewards and avoiding punishment in this
stage of moral development
  • Preoperational
  • Preconventional
  • Conventional
  • Postoperational
  • b. Preconventional

103
Once an individual excepts, internalizes, and
applies the rules of society in making moral
decisions, he or she is in the ______ stage.
  • Formal conventional
  • Conventional
  • Informal operational
  • Social operational
  • b. Conventional

104
According to Erikson, industry is the result of
successful completion of this stage of
development
  • Infancy and toddlerhood
  • ages 6 puberty
  • Young adulthood
  • Middle adulthood
  • b. ages 6 puberty

105
During early childhood, your child will have a
growing self awareness and need for independence.
Erikson called this psychosocial crisis the need
for ____.
  • Authoritarian discipline
  • acceptance versus mistrust
  • Autonomy versus shame and doubt
  • Attachment versus autonomy
  • c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

106
According to Erikson, resolution of critical
conflict of young adulthood leads to the sense of
____.
  • Parental rejection
  • Strong parental control
  • Intimacy
  • None of these options
  • c. Intimacy

107
The ____ theory of aging suggests that it is
natural and necessary for people to withdraw from
their roles in life as they age in order to
prepare themselves for death
  • Kubler-Ross
  • Secondary process
  • Developmental
  • Disengagement
  • d. Disengagement

108
Which of the following is NOT one of the four
stages in the normal grieving process?
  • Numbness
  • Yearning
  • Begging
  • Resolution
  • c. Begging

109
As adults we understand death in terms of three
general concepts permanence, universality, and
____.
  • Spirituality
  • Painfulness
  • Nonfunctionality
  • All of these options
  • c. Nonfunctionality

110
According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross which of the
following is not one of the stages that people go
through while coping with death?
  • Retrenchment
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • a. Retrenchment

111
The acronym DABDA is used to remember
Kubler-Rosss stages of dying. First comes denial
and anger, followed by ____ and depression, then
ending with acceptance.
  • Bargaining
  • Begging
  • Believing
  • Borrowing (hope)
  • a. Bargaining

112
This type of anxiety is associated with a
generalized anxiety disorder
  • Phobia
  • Free-floating
  • Panic attack
  • Nervous breakdown
  • b. Free-floating

113
Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors such as
handwashing, counting, or putting things in order
that are associated with an anxiety state are
called ____.
  • Obsessions
  • Compulsions
  • Ruminations
  • Phobias
  • b. Compulsions

114
A major difference between major depressive and
bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar
disorders do people have ____.
  • Hallucinations or delusions
  • Depression
  • A biochemical imbalance
  • Manic episodes
  • d. Manic episodes

115
This is NOT a possible explanation for depression
  • Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Lithium deficiency
  • Learned helplessness
  • c. Lithium deficiency

116
Hallucinations and delusions are symptoms of
____.
  • Mood disorders
  • Personality disorders
  • Anxiety disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • d. Schizophrenia

117
Family studies have shown that when it comes to
schizophrenia, children are more similar to their
____.
  • Biological parents than their adopted parents
  • Adopted parents than their biological parents
  • Friends than their families
  • Aunts/uncles than their brothers/sisters
  • a. Biological parents than their adaptive parents

118
Antipsychotic drugs can decrease the symptoms of
schizophrenia by decreasing the activity of ____.
  • Dopamine synapses
  • Serotonin synapses
  • The frontal lobes
  • The autonomic nervous system
  • a. Dopamine synapses

119
Amnesia, fugue, and dissociative identity
disorder share this characteristic.
  • A separation of experience and memory
  • Psychosis
  • A split personality
  • Wandering away from home or work
  • a. A separation of experience and memory

120
Multiple personality disorder is now called ____.
  • Schizophrenia
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Amnesiatic personality disorder
  • None of these options this diagnosis is no
    longer considered real
  • b. Dissociative identity disorder

121
Impulsive behavior, egocentrism, lack of
conscience, and ____ are all characteristic of an
antisocial personality disorder.
  • Manipulation of others
  • Lack of social skills
  • Sympathy for victims
  • Lack of intelligence
  • a. Manipulation of others

122
Impulsivity and instability in mood,
relationships, and self-image are part of the
____ personality disorder.
  • Manic depressive
  • Bipolar
  • Borderline
  • None of the above
  • c. Borderline

123
People with ____ frequently have a childhood
history of neglect and abuse, and as adults tend
to see themselves and everyone else in absolutes.
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Schizophrenia
  • Generalized anxiety disorder
  • Borderline personality disorder
  • d. Borderline Personality disorder

124
In ____ disorder, the individual suffers brief
attacks of intense apprehension.
  • Phobic
  • Posttraumatic stress
  • Panic
  • Dissociative fugue
  • c. Panic

125
According to ____ theory, modeling and imitation
may be the causes of some phobia.
  • Social learning
  • Psychobiological
  • Sociocultural
  • Cognitive-behavioral
  • a. Social Learning

126
Distorted thinking that magnifies ordinary
threats or failures is the ____ explanation for
anxiety disorders.
  • Social learning
  • Cognitive
  • Humanistic
  • Psychoanalytic
  • b. Cognitive

127
Mood disorders are sometimes treated by ____
drug, which affect the amount or functioning of
norepinephrine and serotonin.
  • Antidepressants
  • Antipsychotics
  • Mood congruence
  • None of the above
  • a. Antidepressants

128
Internal, stable, and global attributions for
failure or unpleasant circumstances are
associated with ____.
  • Anxiety disorders
  • Delusional disorders
  • Depression
  • All of these options
  • c. Depression

129
Auditory hallucinations are most common in ____.
  • Schizophrenia
  • Posttraumatic stress disorder
  • Bipolar disorder
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • a. Schizophrenia

130
Believing you are the queen of England or Jesus
Christ would be a symptom called ____.
  • Hallucinations
  • Mania
  • Delusions
  • All of these options
  • c. Delusions

131
Delusions, hallucinations and disorganized speech
are ____ symptoms of schizophrenia.
  • Negative
  • Positive
  • Deficit
  • Undifferentiated
  • b. Positive

132
The frontal and temporal lobes appear to be less
active in some people with ____.
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Personality disorder
  • Schizophrenia
  • All of these options
  • c. Schizophrenia

133
The prognosis for some people with schizophrenia
is better in ____.
  • Nonindustrialized societies
  • Families with expressed emotionality
  • Stressful situations
  • None of these options
  • a. Nonindustrialized societies
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