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Psychology is commonly defined as:


Title: Who is the founding father of Psychology? Author: R. Desiree Lewellen Last modified by: rlewellen Created Date: 11/14/2004 6:45:41 PM Document presentation format – PowerPoint PPT presentation

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Title: Psychology is commonly defined as:

Psychology is commonly defined as
  • The study of behavior
  • The study of the mind
  • The study of behavior and mental processes
  • The study of early childhood
  • c. The study of behavior and mental processes

Which of the following are the goals of
  • Describe, manipulate, control and examine
  • Describe, explain, predict and change behavior
  • Predict, control, examine and change behavior
  • Manipulate, control, explain and change behavior
  • b. Describe, explain, predict and change behavior

Psychology often questions to what extent we are
controlled by biological and genetic factors or
by the environment and learning. This ongoing
debate is known as the _____.
  • Nature vs. Nurture controversy
  • Mind vs. Body Dualism
  • Interactionist position
  • Biopsychosocial Model
  • A. Nature-Nurture Controversy

Applied research is conducted to study __________.
  • How people apply knowledge in an educational
  • Theoretical questions that may or may not have
    real-world applications
  • The goals of psychology
  • A specific real-world problem
  • D. A specific real-world problem

The experimental group, in an experiment, is the
group in which the participants _____.
  • Do not receive the independent variable
  • Receive the dependent variable
  • Do not receive the DV
  • Receive the IV
  • D. Receive the IV

The total of all possible cases from which a
sample is selected is called the __________.
  • subject pool
  • population
  • selection group
  • control group
  • B) population

The first step in the scientific method is _____.
  • Forming a testable hypothesis
  • Developing a theory
  • Reviewing the literature of existing theories
  • Designing a study
  • C. Reviewing the literature of existing theories

The ______ variable is the variable that is
  • Independent
  • Intervening
  • Controlled
  • Dependent
  • D) Dependent

The tendency of experimenters to influence the
results of their experiment in an expected
direction is called ____.
  • Experimenter bias
  • Control bias
  • Observational bias
  • Experimental bias
  • A) Experimenter bias

A hypothesis is derived from a ______.
  • idea
  • research paper
  • brainstorming
  • theory
  • D) theory

A procedure to ensure that each individual has
the same probability as any other of being in a
given group is called _____.
  • Random selection
  • Random assignment
  • Representative selection
  • Representative assignment
  • B. Random assignment

Cells within your body specialized for conducting
information are called ____?
  • Dendrites
  • Neurons
  • Axons
  • Nucleotides
  • b. Neurons

The three major parts of a neuron are ____.
  • Glia, dendrites, and myelin
  • Myelin, dendrites, and axon
  • Dendrites, axon and cell body
  • Axon, glia, and myelin
  • c. Dendrites, axon and cell body

The ____ consists of all the nerves that connect
to sensory receptors and control skeletal muscles
  • Parasympathetic nervous system
  • Spinal cord
  • Somatic nervous system
  • Action potential
  • c. Somatic nervous system

___ provide structural, nutritional, and other
support for the neuron, as well as some
communication functions
  • Dendrites
  • Axons
  • Nurturing bodies
  • Glial cells
  • d. Glial cells

Chemical messengers that are secreted into the
synapse are called ____.
  • Ions
  • Neurotransmitters
  • Neurocommunicators
  • Neuromodulators
  • b. Neurotransmitters

The synapse is the point where ____.
  • The soma attaches to the dendrite
  • Neurotransmitters are manufactured
  • Information transfers from neuron to neuron
  • The action potential begins
  • c. Information transfers from neuron to neuron

If you are accidentally hit on the head and you
see flashes of light, most likely the blow
activated cells in the ____.
  • Frontal lobes
  • Temporal lobes
  • Occipital lobes
  • Parietal lobes
  • c. Occipital lobes

The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
lobes make up the ____
  • Brain
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Subcortex
  • Brain stem
  • b. Cerebral cortex

The major divisions of the central nervous system
are ___.
  • Sympathetic and parasympathetic
  • Somatic and autonomic
  • Gray matter and white matter
  • Brain and spinal cord
  • d. Brain and spinal cord

The parasympathetic nervous system is dominant
when a person is ___.
  • Stressed
  • Relaxed
  • Frightened
  • Angry
  • b. Relaxed

The parasympathetic and sympathetic are the major
divisions of the ____ nervous system
  • Automatic
  • Somatic
  • Central
  • Autonomic
  • d. Autonomic

The principle whereby an axon either fires or
does not fire an action potential is called the
  • Sodium-potassium
  • Axon terminal
  • Shotgun
  • All-or-none law
  • d. All-or-none law

Damage to the medulla can lead to loss of ____.
  • Vision
  • Respiration
  • Hearing
  • Smell
  • b. Respiration

The cerebellum, the thalamus, and the
hypothalamus are all ____.
  • Lower-level brain structures
  • Cortical areas
  • Brain stem areas
  • Spinal cord areas
  • a. Lower-level brain structures

Split-brain research has indicated that, in most
people, the left hemisphere is largely
responsible for _____ abilities
  • Musical
  • Spatial
  • Artistic
  • Language
  • d. Language

Neurons are the basic units in the _____.
  • Nervous system
  • Synapses
  • Dendrites
  • Body
  • a. Nervous system

_____ is an organisms awareness of its own self
and surroundings.
  • Awareness
  • Consciousness
  • Alertness
  • Central processing
  • a. consciousness

_____ processes are mental activities that
require minimal attention, without affecting
other activities.
  • Controlled
  • Peripheral
  • Conscious
  • Automatic
  • d. Automatic

Biological rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle
are called _____.
  • Circadian rhythms
  • Synchronisms
  • Diurnal circuits
  • Noctural transmissions
  • a. Circadian rhythms

The _____ theory says that sleep allows us to
replenish what was depleted during daytime
  • Repair/restoration
  • Evolutionary/circadian
  • Supply/demand
  • Conservation of energy
  • a. repair/restoration

Insomnia occurs when you persistently _____.
  • Have difficulty staying awake
  • Go to sleep too early
  • Awake too early
  • All of the above
  • c. Awake too early

_____ is a disease marked by sudden and
irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking
  • Dyssomnia
  • Parasomnia
  • Narcolepsy
  • Sleep apnea
  • c. Narcolepsy

A chemical that blocks the action of a
neurotransmitter is called a/an _____.
  • Synaptic inhibitor
  • Antagonist
  • Alternator
  • Receptor-blocker
  • b. Antagonist

A mental desire or craving to achieve the effects
produced by a drug is known as _____.
  • Withdrawal effects
  • Dependency
  • Psychological dependence
  • Physical dependence
  • c. Psychological dependence

Requiring larger and more frequent doses of a
drug to produce a desired effect is
characteristic of _____.
  • Withdrawal
  • Tolerance
  • Psychoactive dependence
  • All of the above
  • b. Tolerance

Which of the following drugs is a central nervous
system stimulant?
  • Amphetamine
  • Alcohol
  • Heroin
  • Barbiturates
  • a. amphetamine

Which of the following is NOT classified as a
  • Mescaline
  • Psilocybin
  • Amphetamines
  • LSD
  • d. LSD

_____ drugs produce sensory distortions or
perceptual illusions.
  • Stimulants
  • Opiates
  • Depressants
  • Hallucinogens
  • d. Hallucinogens

EEG is the abbreviation for _____, which is used
to record brain waves.
  • Electrical emissions graph
  • Electroencephalograph
  • Electro-energy grams
  • Even elephants get grumpy
  • b. Electroencephalograph

Your breathing is regular, your heart rate and
blood pressure are slowing, and you can be
awakened easily. It is most likely that you are
in _____.
  • A hypnogogic transition between wakefulness and
  • A daydreaming state
  • Stage 1 sleep
  • Stage 2 sleep
  • c. Stage 1 sleep

A relatively permanent change in behavior as a
result of practice or experience is the
definition of ___.
  • Learning
  • Conditioning
  • Behavior modification
  • Modeling
  • a. Learning

When your mouth waters at the sight of a
chocolate cake, it is an example of ____.
  • Operant conditioning
  • Social learning
  • Vicarious conditioning
  • Classical conditioning
  • d. Classical conditioning

Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned STIMULUS is the ____.
  • Bee
  • Sting
  • Fear
  • Crying
  • b. Sting

Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned RESPONSE is the ____.
  • Bee
  • Sting
  • Fear
  • Crying
  • c. Fear

Which of the following is the proper sequence of
events in classical conditioning?
  • b. CS-UCS-UCR

Higher order conditioning occurs when an____.
  • Previously neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned
  • Neutral stimulus is paired with a previously
    conditioned stimulus
  • Neutral stimulus is paired with unconditioned
  • Unconditioned response is paired with a
    conditioned stimulus
  • b. Neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned

In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when
the ____.
  • Conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned response
  • Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned stimulus
  • Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
    unconditioned stimulus
  • Unconditioned stimulus is ambiguous
  • b. Conditioned response is no longer paired with
    the unconditioned stimulus

Anything that causes an increase in a response is
a ___.
  • Conditioned stimulus
  • Reinforcement
  • Punishment
  • Unconditioned stimulus
  • b. Reinforcement

Anything that causes a decrease in a response is
a/an ____.
  • Conditioned stimulus
  • Reinforcement
  • Punishment
  • Unconditioned stimulus
  • c. Punishment

Negative reinforcement and punishment are ____.
  • The same
  • The best ways to learn a new behavior
  • Not the same because negative reinforcement
    increases behavior and punishment decreases
  • Not the same, even though they both decrease
  • c. Not the same because negative reinforcement
    increases behavior and punishment decreases

Making yourself study before you go to the movies
is a good application of ____.
  • Negative reinforcement
  • Positive punishment
  • Fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement
  • The Premack principle
  • d. The Premack principle

Gamblers become addicted to their sport as a
result of ____.
  • Previously generalized response discrimination
  • Previously extinguished response recovery
  • Partial (intermittent) reinforcement
  • Behavior being learned and not conditioned
  • c. Partial (intermittent) reinforcement

Superstitious behavior occurs because ___.
  • It has been reinforced on a fixed ratio schedule
  • The person or animal thinks the behavor causes a
    reinforcer when in reality the behavior and the
    reinforcement are not connected
  • It is reinforced on a random ration schedule
  • The behavior and the reinforcement come close in
    proximity to one another, causing the
    superstitious behavior to increase in magnitude
  • b. The person or animal thinks the behavior
    causes a reinforcer when in reality the behavior
    and the reinforcement are not connected

In Pavlovs classical conditioning experiments
with dogs, salivation was the ____.
  • Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
  • Conditioned response (CR)
  • Unconditioned repose (UCR)
  • Both b and c
  • c. Unconditioned repose (UCR)

In Watson and Rayners Little Albert experiment,
what was the neutral stimulus (NS)?
  • The sight if the experimental room
  • A loud noise
  • A rabbit
  • A rat
  • d. A rat

Albert Banduras social learning theory
emphasized ____.
  • Classical conditioning
  • Operant conditioning
  • Extinction
  • Modeling
  • d. Modeling

In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned emotional response (CER)?
  • Avoidance behavior
  • Superstitious behavior
  • Fear
  • None of the above
  • c. Fear

In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned stimulus?
  • The sight if the experimental room
  • A loud noise
  • A rabbit
  • A rat
  • d. A rat

In higher order conditioning, a neutral stimulus
is paired with ____.
  • Another neutral stimulus
  • A previously conditioned stimulus
  • Two or more unconditioned stimuli
  • Two or more unconditioned responses
  • b. A previously conditioned stimulus

Spontaneous recovery occurs when ___ suddenly
  • Your lost wallet
  • A previously extinguished response
  • An extinct instinct
  • A forgotten stimulus- response sequence
  • b. A previously extinguished response

Children may learn to salivate to McDonalds
golden arches as a result of
  • Advertising
  • Classical conditioning
  • Higher-order conditioning
  • All of the above
  • d. All of the above

Operant conditioning is an example of ___ in
  • Thorndikes law of effect
  • Skinners law of reinforcement
  • Watsons rule of punishment
  • Pavlovs theory of stimulus-response
  • a. Thorndikes law of effect

____ are unlearned, usually satisfy a biological
need, and increase the probability of a response
  • Primary instincts
  • Secondary instincts
  • Primary reinforcers
  • Secondary reinforcers
  • c. Primary reinforcers

Observational learning theory suggests that we
learn many behaviors by ____.
  • Imitating others
  • Observing our inner processes
  • Teaching others
  • Shaping our own and others behaviors
  • a. Imitating others

In Albert Banduras classic bobo doll study,
children acted aggressively because ____.
  • They were rewarded for their behavior
  • Of observational learning
  • They were positively punished
  • All of these options
  • b. Of observational learning

Maintenance rehearsal _______
  • Prevents motivated forgetting
  • Prevents chunking
  • Reenters information in sensory memory
  • Reenters information in STM
  • c. Reenters information in sensory memory

Which of the following is a recognition test of
  • Remembering a name that goes with a face
  • A multiple choice test
  • An essay test
  • Reciting the names of the state capitals
  • b. A multiple choice test

You notice that you tend to do better on exam
questions from the first and last of each
chapter. The most likely explanation is the ____.
  • Anterograde amnesia effect
  • Problem of distribute practice
  • Serial position effect
  • Sleeper effect
  • c. Serial position effect

Short-term memory receives information from
sensory memory and from ____.
  • Long term memory
  • Working memory
  • The perceptual processing network
  • Maintenance rehearsal
  • a. Long term memory

The process that allows us to store more
information in short-term memory by grouping
information into units is called ____.
  • Maintenance
  • Collective organization
  • Chunking
  • Proximal closure
  • c. Chunking

To increase the duration and capacity of you STM
you should try ____.
  • Maintenance rehearsal
  • Chunking
  • Constructive process
  • All of the above
  • b. Chunking

The ____ effect suggests that people will recall
information presented at the beginning and the
end of a list better than information from the
middle of the list.
  • Recency
  • Serial position
  • Latency
  • Primacy
  • b. Serial position

Developmental psychologists are not interested in
  • Fetal well-being
  • Age-related differences
  • Age-related similarities
  • Life after death
  • d. Life after death

Age at crawling, walking, and toilet training is
primarily dependant on the ____
  • Educational level of the parents
  • Specific training techniques of the childs
  • Maturational readiness of the child
  • Genetic influences inherited from both mother and
  • c. Maturational readiness of the child

A ____ is the most appropriate research method
for studying age-changes across the life span.
  • Case study
  • Natural observation
  • Longitudinal study
  • Cross sectional study
  • c. Longitudinal study

Conception occurs when a ____
  • Fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining
  • Ovum undergoes its first cell division
  • Ejaculation occurs
  • Sperm cell unites with an ovum
  • b. Ovum undergoes its first cell division

Rapid cell division from conception to two weeks
is known as the ____ period
  • Fetal
  • Germinal
  • Embryonic
  • Conceptual
  • b. Germinal

At birth an infant cannot ____.
  • See as well as an adult
  • Recognize the taste or odor of its own mothers
  • Feel pain
  • Turn its head without help
  • a. See as well as an adult

The period of life when an individual first
becomes capable of reproduction is knows as ____.
  • The growth spurt
  • Adolescence
  • Puberty
  • The latency period
  • c. Puberty

Which of the following is correctly matched?
  • Lorenzageism
  • Piagetpermissive parenting
  • Harlowcontact comfort
  • Baumrindaccommodation
  • c. Harlowcontact comfort

According to Freud, infants become attached to
the caregiver that provides ____, but according
to Harlow, attachment results from____.
  • Oral pleasure contact comfort
  • Unconscious needs imprinting
  • Nourishment touching
  • None of the above
  • a. Oral pleasure contact comfort

Harlows research with infant monkeys and
artificial surrogate mothers indicates that ____.
  • The most important factor in infant development
    is a loving environment
  • Attachment is not essential to normal development
  • There is no significant difference in the choice
    of wire or terrycloth mother
  • The most important variable in attachment may be
    contact comfort
  • d. The most important variable in attachment may
    be contact comfort

According to Piaget, an infant acquires ___ when
he or she understands that people and things
continue to exist even when they cannot directly
be seen, heard or touched.
  • Conservation
  • Reversibility
  • Egocentrism
  • Object permanence
  • d. Object permanence

Piaget used the term egocentrism to describe the
fact that ___.
  • All children are naturally selfish during the
    first few years of life
  • Children view the world from one perspective
    (their own)
  • The childs limited logic impedes his or her
    understanding of the need to share
  • Children are unable to conserve
  • b. Children view the world from one perspective
    (their own)

During Piagets fourth stage of cognitive
development, adolescents first become capable of
  • Egocentrism
  • Dealing effectively with transformations
  • Using language and other symbols
  • Hypothetical thinking
  • d. Hypothetical thinking

Today the interactionist approach to development
is supported by ____.
  • More nativists than empiricists
  • More empiricists that nativists
  • More psychologists
  • More psychiatrists than psychologists
  • c. More psychologists

The ____method of research may confuse genuine
age differences with cohort effects, differences
that result from specific histories of the age
group studied.
  • Cross-cultural
  • Longitudinal
  • Cross-sectional
  • All of the above
  • c. cross-sectional

Schemas are cognitive structures that contain
organized ideas about the world and____.
  • Expand or differentiate with expierence
  • May assimilate new information
  • May accommodate new information
  • All of the above
  • d. All of the above

According to Piaget, accommodation means that a
schema has ____
  • Been changed to fit new information
  • Been used to understand new information
  • Reversed itself
  • Conversed itself
  • a. Been changed to fit new information

Piagets four stages of cognative development
start with the sensorimoter and preoperational
stages, and end with the ____ stages
  • Assimilation and accommodation
  • Operation and abstraction
  • Concrete and formal operational
  • Concept testing and deductive reasoning
  • c. Concrete and formal operational

Egocentrism is present in which of Piagets
stages of cognitive development
  • Preoperational and operational
  • Preoperational only
  • Sensorimoter and preoperational
  • Sensorimoter only
  • a. Preoperational and operational

The child who believes the sun follows him or her
around and that trees have feelings are probably
in the ___ stage of development.
  • Preoperational
  • terrible teens
  • Concrete operational
  • Formal operational
  • a. Preoperational

During Kohlbergs ____ level of moral development
right and wrong are judged on the basis of
  • Conventional
  • Amoral
  • Postconventional
  • Preconventional
  • d. Preconventional

When people have developed their own standards of
right and wrong they are judged by Kohlbergs
theory to be at the ____ level of morality
  • Adolescent
  • Postconventional
  • Nonconventional
  • Conventional
  • b. Postconventional

Kohlbergs theory of moral development has been
criticized for its ____.
  • Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality
  • Political bias in favor of conservatives
  • Sexual bias in favor of women
  • Ethnic bias against anglosaxons
  • a. Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality

The positive or negative resolution of 8
developmental challenges is characteristic of ___
  • Freuds psychosexual
  • Freuds psychoanalytic
  • Maslows hierarchecical
  • Eriksons psychosocial
  • d. Eriksons psychosocial

According to Erikson, the challenge faced by
infants in their first year is ____
  • a. weaning
  • b. object premanence
  • c. trust versus mistrust
  • d. toilet training
  • c. Trust versus mistrust

According to Erikson, the need to develop a sense
of identity is the principle task of ____.
  • The phallic stage of psychosexual development
  • adolescence
  • middle adulthood
  • The generativity versus stagnation stage of
  • b. adolescence

According to Erikson, the inner conflict during
which an individual examines his or her life and
values and makes decisions about life roles is
called a(n) ____ crisis.
  • Midlife
  • Climactieric
  • Integrity
  • Identity
  • d. Identity

In Eriksons final stage of psychosocial
development, adults may ____ .
  • Regret lost opportunities
  • Become despondent
  • Review their accomplishments
  • Any of the above
  • d. Any of the above

Moral judgment is self centered and based on
obtaining rewards and avoiding punishment in this
stage of moral development
  • Preoperational
  • Preconventional
  • Conventional
  • Postoperational
  • b. Preconventional

Once an individual excepts, internalizes, and
applies the rules of society in making moral
decisions, he or she is in the ______ stage.
  • Formal conventional
  • Conventional
  • Informal operational
  • Social operational
  • b. Conventional

According to Erikson, industry is the result of
successful completion of this stage of
  • Infancy and toddlerhood
  • ages 6 puberty
  • Young adulthood
  • Middle adulthood
  • b. ages 6 puberty

During early childhood, your child will have a
growing self awareness and need for independence.
Erikson called this psychosocial crisis the need
for ____.
  • Authoritarian discipline
  • acceptance versus mistrust
  • Autonomy versus shame and doubt
  • Attachment versus autonomy
  • c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

According to Erikson, resolution of critical
conflict of young adulthood leads to the sense of
  • Parental rejection
  • Strong parental control
  • Intimacy
  • None of these options
  • c. Intimacy

The ____ theory of aging suggests that it is
natural and necessary for people to withdraw from
their roles in life as they age in order to
prepare themselves for death
  • Kubler-Ross
  • Secondary process
  • Developmental
  • Disengagement
  • d. Disengagement

Which of the following is NOT one of the four
stages in the normal grieving process?
  • Numbness
  • Yearning
  • Begging
  • Resolution
  • c. Begging

As adults we understand death in terms of three
general concepts permanence, universality, and
  • Spirituality
  • Painfulness
  • Nonfunctionality
  • All of these options
  • c. Nonfunctionality

According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross which of the
following is not one of the stages that people go
through while coping with death?
  • Retrenchment
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • a. Retrenchment

The acronym DABDA is used to remember
Kubler-Rosss stages of dying. First comes denial
and anger, followed by ____ and depression, then
ending with acceptance.
  • Bargaining
  • Begging
  • Believing
  • Borrowing (hope)
  • a. Bargaining

This type of anxiety is associated with a
generalized anxiety disorder
  • Phobia
  • Free-floating
  • Panic attack
  • Nervous breakdown
  • b. Free-floating

Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors such as
handwashing, counting, or putting things in order
that are associated with an anxiety state are
called ____.
  • Obsessions
  • Compulsions
  • Ruminations
  • Phobias
  • b. Compulsions

A major difference between major depressive and
bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar
disorders do people have ____.
  • Hallucinations or delusions
  • Depression
  • A biochemical imbalance
  • Manic episodes
  • d. Manic episodes

This is NOT a possible explanation for depression
  • Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Lithium deficiency
  • Learned helplessness
  • c. Lithium deficiency

Hallucinations and delusions are symptoms of
  • Mood disorders
  • Personality disorders
  • Anxiety disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • d. Schizophrenia

Family studies have shown that when it comes to
schizophrenia, children are more similar to their
  • Biological parents than their adopted parents
  • Adopted parents than their biological parents
  • Friends than their families
  • Aunts/uncles than their brothers/sisters
  • a. Biological parents than their adaptive parents

Antipsychotic drugs can decrease the symptoms of
schizophrenia by decreasing the activity of ____.
  • Dopamine synapses
  • Serotonin synapses
  • The frontal lobes
  • The autonomic nervous system
  • a. Dopamine synapses

Amnesia, fugue, and dissociative identity
disorder share this characteristic.
  • A separation of experience and memory
  • Psychosis
  • A split personality
  • Wandering away from home or work
  • a. A separation of experience and memory

Multiple personality disorder is now called ____.
  • Schizophrenia
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Amnesiatic personality disorder
  • None of these options this diagnosis is no
    longer considered real
  • b. Dissociative identity disorder

Impulsive behavior, egocentrism, lack of
conscience, and ____ are all characteristic of an
antisocial personality disorder.
  • Manipulation of others
  • Lack of social skills
  • Sympathy for victims
  • Lack of intelligence
  • a. Manipulation of others

Impulsivity and instability in mood,
relationships, and self-image are part of the
____ personality disorder.
  • Manic depressive
  • Bipolar
  • Borderline
  • None of the above
  • c. Borderline

People with ____ frequently have a childhood
history of neglect and abuse, and as adults tend
to see themselves and everyone else in absolutes.
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Schizophrenia
  • Generalized anxiety disorder
  • Borderline personality disorder
  • d. Borderline Personality disorder

In ____ disorder, the individual suffers brief
attacks of intense apprehension.
  • Phobic
  • Posttraumatic stress
  • Panic
  • Dissociative fugue
  • c. Panic

According to ____ theory, modeling and imitation
may be the causes of some phobia.
  • Social learning
  • Psychobiological
  • Sociocultural
  • Cognitive-behavioral
  • a. Social Learning

Distorted thinking that magnifies ordinary
threats or failures is the ____ explanation for
anxiety disorders.
  • Social learning
  • Cognitive
  • Humanistic
  • Psychoanalytic
  • b. Cognitive

Mood disorders are sometimes treated by ____
drug, which affect the amount or functioning of
norepinephrine and serotonin.
  • Antidepressants
  • Antipsychotics
  • Mood congruence
  • None of the above
  • a. Antidepressants

Internal, stable, and global attributions for
failure or unpleasant circumstances are
associated with ____.
  • Anxiety disorders
  • Delusional disorders
  • Depression
  • All of these options
  • c. Depression

Auditory hallucinations are most common in ____.
  • Schizophrenia
  • Posttraumatic stress disorder
  • Bipolar disorder
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • a. Schizophrenia

Believing you are the queen of England or Jesus
Christ would be a symptom called ____.
  • Hallucinations
  • Mania
  • Delusions
  • All of these options
  • c. Delusions

Delusions, hallucinations and disorganized speech
are ____ symptoms of schizophrenia.
  • Negative
  • Positive
  • Deficit
  • Undifferentiated
  • b. Positive

The frontal and temporal lobes appear to be less
active in some people with ____.
  • Dissociative identity disorder
  • Personality disorder
  • Schizophrenia
  • All of these options
  • c. Schizophrenia

The prognosis for some people with schizophrenia
is better in ____.
  • Nonindustrialized societies
  • Families with expressed emotionality
  • Stressful situations
  • None of these options
  • a. Nonindustrialized societies