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Cell Energy and Enzymes REVIEW GAME

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Title: Cell Energy and Enzymes REVIEW GAME


1
(No Transcript)
2
  • As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter
    cells are
  • identical to neither the parent cell nor to each
    other
  • genetically identical to each other but not to
    the parent cell
  • genetically identical to the parent cell but not
    to each other
  • genetically identical to the parent cell and to
    each other

3
  • As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter
    cells are
  • identical to neither the parent cell nor to each
    other
  • genetically identical to each other but not to
    the parent cell
  • genetically identical to the parent cell but not
    to each other
  • genetically identical to the parent cell and to
    each other

4
  • An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes
    normal mitosis. What is the total number of
    chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter
    cells?
  • a) 6    
  • b) 8   
  • c) 12     
  • d) 24

5
  • An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes
    normal mitosis. What is the total number of
    chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter
    cells?
  • a) 6    
  • b) 8   
  • c) 12     
  • d) 24

6
  • Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms
    normally results in new organisms that contain
    cells with
  • fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of
    the parent
  • the haploid number of chromosomes
  • more chromosomes than are found in the cells of
    the parent
  • the diploid number of chromosomes

7
  • Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms
    normally results in new organisms that contain
    cells with
  • fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of
    the parent
  • the haploid number of chromosomes
  • more chromosomes than are found in the cells of
    the parent
  • the diploid number of chromosomes

8
  • Cancer is a disease characterized by the
  • controlled cell division of normal cells
  • uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells
  • limited production of normal fertilized eggs
  • unlimited production of abnormal embryos
  • reduced cell division of quiescent cells

9
  • Cancer is a disease characterized by the
  • controlled cell division of normal cells
  • uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells
  • limited production of normal fertilized eggs
  • unlimited production of abnormal embryos
  • reduced cell division of quiescent cells

10
  • Which of the following statements is false?
  • A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell
  • B) gametes are haploid cells
  • C) somatic cells are diploid
  • D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

11
  • Which of the following statements is false?
  • A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell
  • B) gametes are haploid cells
  • C) somatic cells are diploid
  • D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

12
  • Which process must occur before the mitotic phase
    of the cell cycle begins?
  • A. reformation of the nuclear envelope
  • B. replication of the chromosomes
  • C. cytoplasmic division
  • D. Separation of the sister chromatids

13
  • Which process must occur before the mitotic phase
    of the cell cycle begins?
  • A. reformation of the nuclear envelope
  • B. replication of the chromosomes
  • C. cytoplasmic division
  • D. Separation of the sister chromatids

14
  • Which of the following indicates the types of
    cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and
    mitosis?
  • body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both
    mitosis and meiosis
  • body cells are produced in meiosis gametes in
    mitosis
  • gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis
  • body cells are produced in mitosis gametes in
    meiosis

15
  • Which of the following indicates the types of
    cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and
    mitosis?
  • body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both
    mitosis and meiosis
  • body cells are produced in meiosis gametes in
    mitosis
  • gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis
  • body cells are produced in mitosis gametes in
    meiosis

16
  • Place these stages of the cell cycle in the
    correct order.

17
  • Place these stages of the cell cycle in the
    correct order.
  • C, B, D, A

18
  • During which phase of the cell cycle are the
    sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic
    spindle and aligned across the center of the cell
    at the equator.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

19
  • During which phase of the cell cycle are the
    sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic
    spindle and aligned across the center of the cell
    at the equator.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

20
  • During which phase of the cell cycle does the
    cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter
    cells.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

21
  • During which phase of the cell cycle does the
    cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter
    cells.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

22
  • During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA
    replicated to produce sister chromatids attached
    at a centromere.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

23
  • During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA
    replicated to produce sister chromatids attached
    at a centromere.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

24
  • During which phase of the cell cycle are the
    sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward
    opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic
    spindle.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

25
  • During which phase of the cell cycle are the
    sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward
    opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic
    spindle.
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Interphase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Metaphase

26
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for complete and accurate DNA
    replication.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

27
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for complete and accurate DNA
    replication.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

28
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for complete attachment of all sister
    chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their
    kinetochores.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

29
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for complete attachment of all sister
    chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their
    kinetochores.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

30
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for appropriate cell size.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

31
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for appropriate cell size.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

32
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for DNA damage.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

33
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for DNA damage.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

34
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for alignment of the sister chromatids
    across the equator on a line equidistant from the
    two poles.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

35
  • During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells
    checked for alignment of the sister chromatids
    across the equator on a line equidistant from the
    two poles.
  • G1 to S checkpoint
  • G2 to M checkpoint
  • Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint
  • A and B.

36
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition
    and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep
    in culture.
  • The majority of cancer cells are in a G0 phase of
    quiescence.
  • Normal cells spend approximately 80-90 of their
    time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle.
  • All normal cells have a characteristic rounded
    shape, while cancer cells tend to be more
    stretched out and irregular in their shape.

37
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition
    and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep
    in culture.
  • The majority of cancer cells are in a G0 phase of
    quiescence.
  • Normal cells spend approximately 80-90 of their
    time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle.
  • All normal cells have a characteristic rounded
    shape, while cancer cells tend to be more
    stretched out and irregular in their shape.

38
  • Which of the following is NOT true of cancer
    cells.
  • They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition
    (also known as contact inhibition) when grown in
    culture, and therefore will grow several cell
    layers deep.
  • They lose the distinct shape and structure of
    normal cells of that particular cell type, and
    instead show a variety of shapes, frequently
    becoming rounded in appearance.
  • They frequently contain an abnormal number of
    chromosomes.
  • They show an increased dependence on growth
    factors and other signals to maintain rapid cell
    division.

39
  • Which of the following is NOT true of cancer
    cells.
  • They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition
    (also known as contact inhibition) when grown in
    culture, and therefore will grow several cell
    layers deep.
  • They lose the distinct shape and structure of
    normal cells of that particular cell type, and
    instead show a variety of shapes, frequently
    becoming rounded in appearance.
  • They frequently contain an abnormal number of
    chromosomes.
  • They show an increased dependence on growth
    factors and other signals to maintain rapid cell
    division.

40
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape
    that reflects their normal cellular function,
    whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and
    rounded in appearance.
  • Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors
    and other external signals than normal cells are.
  • Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer
    cells are usually diploid.
  • Normal cells will frequently grow several cell
    layers deep, since they do not exhibit
    density-dependent inhibition.

41
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape
    that reflects their normal cellular function,
    whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and
    rounded in appearance.
  • Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors
    and other external signals than normal cells are.
  • Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer
    cells are usually diploid.
  • Normal cells will frequently grow several cell
    layers deep, since they do not exhibit
    density-dependent inhibition.

42
  • A physical or chemical agent that changes the
    nucleotide sequence of DNA is called 
  • a) an anticodon
  • b) a terminator
  • c) a transposon
  • d) a mutagen.

43
  • A physical or chemical agent that changes the
    nucleotide sequence of DNA is called 
  • a) an anticodon
  • b) a terminator
  • c) a transposon
  • d) a mutagen.

44
  • A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an
    error in
  • DNA replication.
  • DNA transcription
  • translation.
  • reverse transcription.

45
  • A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an
    error in
  • DNA replication.
  • DNA transcription
  • translation.
  • reverse transcription.

46
  • True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant
    phenotype.
  • true
  • false
  • cannot be determined

47
  • True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant
    phenotype.
  • true
  • false
  • cannot be determined

48
  • Which of the following are known to be
    carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens.
  • UV radiation from the sun
  • X-rays
  • Certain chemical compounds
  • All of the above

49
  • Which of the following are known to be
    carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens.
  • UV radiation from the sun
  • X-rays
  • Certain chemical compounds
  • All of the above

50
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become
    cancer-causing proto-oncogenes.
  • The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor
    genes is to stimulate progression of the cell
    cycle.
  • Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle.
  • Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor
    genes are usually recessive, meaning that both
    alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect
    to be observed.

51
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE.
  • Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become
    cancer-causing proto-oncogenes.
  • The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor
    genes is to stimulate progression of the cell
    cycle.
  • Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle.
  • Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor
    genes are usually recessive, meaning that both
    alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect
    to be observed.

52
  • Cancer is often the result of activation of ____
    to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes.
  • oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes,
    proto-oncogenes
  • proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor
    genes
  • oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor
    genes
  • proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

53
  • Cancer is often the result of activation of ____
    to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes.
  • oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes,
    proto-oncogenes
  • proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor
    genes
  • oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor
    genes
  • proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

54
  • Which of the following statements is FALSE.
  • Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in
    normal cellular genes that regulate the cell
    cycle called proto-oncogenes.
  • Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral
    infections.
  • Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes
    are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles
    of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be
    observed.
  • Mutant oncogenes act as a gas pedal driving
    continuous cell division.

55
  • Which of the following statements is FALSE.
  • Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in
    normal cellular genes that regulate the cell
    cycle called proto-oncogenes.
  • Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral
    infections.
  • Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes
    are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles
    of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be
    observed.
  • Mutant oncogenes act as a gas pedal driving
    continuous cell division.

56
  • Which of the following statements is true about
    cancer.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently increase the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to halt at the G1 to S
    checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently increase the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to pass through at the G1
    to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently decrease the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to halt at the G1 to S
    checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently decrease the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to pass through at the G1
    to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.

57
  • Which of the following statements is true about
    cancer.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently increase the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to halt at the G1 to S
    checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently increase the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to pass through at the G1
    to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently decrease the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to halt at the G1 to S
    checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.
  • Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53
    frequently decrease the function of these genes,
    causing cell division to pass through at the G1
    to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.

58
(No Transcript)
59
  • List the following electromagnetic spectrum wave
    types in order from lowest energy to highest
    energy
  • Gamma rays
  • Infrared
  • Microwaves
  • Radiowaves
  • Ultraviolet
  • Visible light
  • X-rays

60
  • List the following electromagnetic spectrum wave
    types in order from lowest energy to highest
    energy
  • Radiowaves
  • Microwaves
  • Infrared
  • Visible light
  • Ultraviolet
  • X-rays
  • Gamma rays

61
  • What is the relationship between wavelength and
    frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?

62
  • What is the relationship between wavelength and
    frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?
  • As wavelength decreases, frequency increases

63
  • What is the relationship between frequency and
    energy in the electromagnetic spectrum?

64
  • What is the relationship between frequency and
    energy in the electromagnetic spectrum?
  • As frequency increases, energy increases

65
  • Which of the wave types within the
    electromagnetic spectrum are potentially
    ionizing?

66
  • Which of the wave types within the
    electromagnetic spectrum are potentially
    ionizing?
  • Ultraviolet
  • X-rays
  • Gamma rays

67
  • Which of the statements below is an accurate
    description of what occurs during ionization of
    an atom?
  • a. An atom loses a proton and becomes a
    negatively charged ion.
  • b. An atom loses an electron and becomes a
    positively charged ion.
  • c. An atom loses an electron and becomes a
    negatively charged ion.
  • d. An atom gains a neutron and its atomic mass
    increases by 1.

68
  • Which of the statements below is an accurate
    description of what occurs during ionization of
    an atom?
  • a. An atom loses a proton and becomes a
    negatively charged ion.
  • b. An atom loses an electron and becomes a
    positively charged ion.
  • c. An atom loses an electron and becomes a
    negatively charged ion.
  • d. An atom gains a neutron and its atomic mass
    increases by 1.

69
  • Element identity (what element it is) is
    determined by
  • its atomic number.
  • its mass number.
  • its neutron number.
  • All of these are correct.

70
  • Element identity (what element it is) is
    determined by
  • its atomic number.
  • its mass number.
  • its neutron number.
  • All of these are correct.
  • Element identity, meaning the element NAME, is
    determined solely be the number of protons, and
    hence solely by atomic number.

71
  • Isotopes of an element
  • a. Are always radioactive
  • b. Differ in their number of protons
  • c. Differ in their number of neutrons
  • d. Differ in their number of electrons

72
  • Isotopes of an element
  • a. Are always radioactive
  • b. Differ in their number of protons
  • c. Differ in their number of neutrons
  • d. Differ in their number of electrons

73
  • Which one of the following is a correct
    representation of an alpha particle?
  • a. 42He
  • b. 0-1e
  • c. 10e
  • d. 00?

74
  • Which one of the following is a correct
    representation of an alpha particle?
  • a. 42He
  • b. 0-1e
  • c. 10e
  • d. 00?

75
  • Alpha decay produces a new atom whose __________
    than those of the original atom.
  • a. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 4
    less
  • b. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 2
    less
  • c. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 4
    more
  • d. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 2
    less

76
  • Alpha decay produces a new atom whose __________
    than those of the original atom.
  • a. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 4
    less
  • b. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 2
    less
  • c. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 4
    more
  • d. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 2
    less

77
  • Which one of the following is a correct
    representation of a beta particle?
  • a. 42He
  • b. 0-1e
  • c. 10e
  • d. 00?

78
  • Which one of the following is a correct
    representation of a beta particle?
  • a. 42He
  • b. 0-1e
  • c. 10e
  • d. 00?

79
  • What happens to the atomic mass and atomic number
    of an atom when it undergoes beta (ß) decay?
  • a. The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic
    number increases by 1.
  • b. The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic
    number decreases by 2.
  • c. The mass number does not change and the
    atomic number increases by 1.
  • d. Neither the mass number nor the atomic number
    change.

80
  • What happens to the atomic mass and atomic number
    of an atom when it undergoes beta (ß) decay?
  • a. The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic
    number increases by 1.
  • b. The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic
    number decreases by 2.
  • c. The mass number does not change and the
    atomic number increases by 1.
  • d. Neither the mass number nor the atomic number
    change.

81
  • By what process does uranium-238 decay to
    thorium-234?
  • a. alpha decay
  • b. beta decay
  • c. gamma ray emission
  • d. electron capture

82
  • By what process does uranium-238 decay to
    thorium-234?
  • a. alpha decay
  • b. beta decay
  • c. gamma ray emission
  • d. electron capture
  • Uranium 238 must have undergone alpha decay to
    produce thorium-234, since atomic mass has
    decreased by 4. Furthermore, according to the
    Periodic Table, uranium has an atomic number of
    92, while thorium has an atomic number of 90.
    Therefore, atomic number has decreased by 2. The
    complete nuclear decay equation is
  • 23892U ? 23490Th 42He

83
  • What is the missing product from this nuclear
    decay reaction 13755Cs ? 13756Ba
    _______________
  • a. 42He
  • b. 01e
  • c. 0-1e
  • d. 00?

84
  • What is the missing product from this nuclear
    decay reaction 13755Cs ? 13756Ba
    _______________
  • a. 42He
  • b. 01e
  • c. 0-1e
  • d. 00?
  • Cesium-137 has an atomic number of 55, while
    Barium-137 has an atomic number of 56.
    Therefore, during this decay reaction, atomic
    number has gone up by one while atomic mass is
    unchanged. Such changes are characteristic of
    beta decay, thus the missing product is a beta
    particle. The complete nuclear decay equation
    is
  • 13755Cs ? 13756Ba 0-1e

85
  • Thorium undergoes alpha decay. The product of
    this reaction also undergoes alpha decay. What is
    the final product of this second decay
    reaction __________ ?

86
  • Thorium undergoes alpha decay. The product of
    this reaction also undergoes alpha decay. What is
    the final product of this second decay
    reaction _radon_ ?
  • The problem tells you that two alpha decay events
    occur. Since atomic number decreases by two for
    each alpha decay event, the total decrease in
    atomic number will be 4. The starting thorium
    atom has an atomic number of 90. Subtracting 4
    gives a final atomic number of 86. Referring to
    the Periodic Table, we can see that the element
    radon has an atomic number of 86.

87
  • What type of radioactive decay does not change
    the atomic number or atomic mass of an element?
  • a. electron captureb. gamma ray emissionc.
    alpha decayd. beta decay

88
  • What type of radioactive decay does not change
    the atomic number or atomic mass of an element?
  • a. electron captureb. gamma ray emissionc.
    alpha decayd. beta decay
  • Gamma rays have no charge and no mass, being a
    wave rather than a particle, therefore the
    emission of gamma rays during decay affects
    neither atomic mass nor atomic number.

89
  • A 39Cl atom ejects a beta particle. What is the
    product of this reaction?
  • a. 39Ar
  • b. 39Cl
  • c. 39S
  • d. 38Ar

90
  • A 39Cl atom ejects a beta particle. What is the
    product of this reaction?
  • a. 39Ar
  • b. 39Cl
  • c. 39S
  • d. 38Ar
  • Referring to the Periodic Table we can see that
    the atomic number of Cl is 17. We know that beta
    decay causes atomic number to increase by 1,
    therefore the final atomic mass is 18. Referring
    to the Periodic Table we see that argon (Ar) has
    an atomic mass of 18. We also know that beta
    emission causes no change in the atomic mass,
    therefore the specific isotope generated is
    argon-39 . The overall nuclear decay equestion
    is
  • 3917Cl ? o-1e 3918Ar

91
  • Which of the following statements about oxidation
    and reduction is FALSE?
  • Reactions involving the transfer of electrons are
    called redox reactions.
  • Oxidation is the loss of electrons.
  • Reduction is the gain of electrons.
  • The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.

92
  • Which of the following statements about oxidation
    and reduction is FALSE?
  • Reactions involving the transfer of electrons are
    called redox reactions.
  • Oxidation is the loss of electrons.
  • Reduction is the gain of electrons.
  • The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.

93
  • Which of the following statements about oxidation
    and reduction is TRUE?
  • Oxidation and reduction cannot both occur in the
    same chemical reaction.
  • Redox reactions must involve the gain or loss of
    oxygen atoms.
  • The oxidizing agent is the substance being
    reduced.
  • Oxidation is the gain of electrons

94
  • Which of the following statements about oxidation
    and reduction is TRUE?
  • Oxidation and reduction cannot both occur in the
    same chemical reaction.
  • Redox reactions must involve the gain or loss of
    oxygen atoms.
  • The oxidizing agent is the substance being
    reduced.
  • Oxidation is the gain of electrons

95
  • Which of the following are typically TRUE of an
    oxidizing agent?
  • 1. It causes oxidation.
  • 2. It gains electron(s).
  • 3. It is the reduced substance.
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • All of 1, 2, and 3

96
  • Which of the following are typically TRUE of an
    oxidizing agent?
  • 1. It causes oxidation.
  • 2. It gains electron(s).
  • 3. It is the reduced substance.
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • All of 1, 2, and 3

97
  • Which of the following are typically TRUE of a
    reducing agent?
  • 1. It causes reduction.
  • 2. It gains electron(s).
  • 3. It is the oxidized substance.
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • All of 1, 2, and 3

98
  • Which of the following are typically TRUE of a
    reducing agent?
  • 1. It causes reduction.
  • 2. It gains electron(s).
  • 3. It is the oxidized substance.
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • All of 1, 2, and 3

99
  • In the reaction
  • Mg(s) Cu2(aq) ? Mg2(aq) Cu(s)
  • Electrons are transferred from Cu to Cu2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Mg to Cu2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Cu to Mg2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Mg2 to Mg.

100
  • In the reaction
  • Mg(s) Cu2(aq) ? Mg2(aq) Cu(s)
  • Electrons are transferred from Cu to Cu2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Mg to Cu2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Cu to Mg2.
  • Electrons are transferred from Mg2 to Mg.

101
  • For the reaction
  • Zn(s) Fe2(aq) ? Zn2(aq) Fe(s)
  • Zn is reduced and Fe2 is oxidized.
  • Zn is oxidized and Fe2 is reduced.
  • Zn and Fe2 are both oxidized.
  • Zn and Fe2 are both reduced.

102
  • For the reaction
  • Zn(s) Fe2(aq) ? Zn2(aq) Fe(s)
  • Zn is reduced and Fe2 is oxidized.
  • Zn is oxidized and Fe2 is reduced.
  • Zn and Fe2 are both oxidized.
  • Zn and Fe2 are both reduced.

103
  • For the reaction
  • Si(s) O2(g) ? SiO2(g)
  • Si is the reducing agent and O2 is the oxidizing
    agent.
  • O2 is the reducing agent and Si oxidizing agent.
  • SiO2 is both the reducing agent and the oxidizing
    agent.
  • Si and O2 are both oxidized to generate SiO2.

104
  • For the reaction
  • Si(s) O2(g) ? SiO2(g)
  • Si is the reducing agent and O2 is the oxidizing
    agent.
  • O2 is the reducing agent and Si oxidizing agent.
  • SiO2 is both the reducing agent and the oxidizing
    agent.
  • Si and O2 are both oxidized to generate SiO2.

105
  • What is the general function of enzymes within a
    cell?
  • A) to promote the synthesis of monomers
  • B) to induce chemical reactions
  • C) to stop chemical reactions
  • D) to speed up chemical reactions

106
  • What is the general function of enzymes within a
    cell?
  • A) to promote the synthesis of monomers
  • B) to induce chemical reactions
  • C) to stop chemical reactions
  • D) to speed up chemical reactions

107
  • The effect of temperature on the relative rate
    of action of an enzyme is represented in the
    graph below. The optimum temperature for the
    action of this enzyme is approximately
  • a. 15?C
  • b. 22?C
  • c. 37?C
  • d. 50?C

108
  • The effect of temperature on the relative rate
    of action of an enzyme is represented in the
    graph below. The optimum temperature for the
    action of this enzyme is approximately
  • a. 15?C
  • b. 22?C
  • c. 37?C
  • d. 50?C

109
  •  Use the diagram below to answer the question.
  • Identify the parts involved.
  • A and B are enzymes and C is the substrate
  • C is the enzyme and A and B are the substrates.
  • A is the enzyme, B is the monomer and C is the
    polymer
  • A and B are the substrates and C is the polymer

110
  •  Use the diagram below to answer the question.
  • Identify the parts involved.
  • A and B are enzymes and C is the substrate
  • C is the enzyme and A and B are the substrates.
  • A is the enzyme, B is the monomer and C is the
    polymer
  • A and B are the substrates and C is the polymer

111
  • The enzyme salivary amylase will act on starch
    but not on protein. This action illustrates that
    salivary amylase
  • A. contains starch
  • B. is not reusable
  • C. is substrate specific
  • D. lacks protein
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  

112
  • The enzyme salivary amylase will act on starch
    but not on protein. This action illustrates that
    salivary amylase
  • A. contains starch
  • B. is not reusable
  • C. is substrate specific
  • D. lacks protein
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  

113
  • When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction,
  • A) it lowers the activation energy of the
    reaction.
  • B) it raises the activation energy of the
    reaction.
  • C) it acts as a reactant.
  • D) it is used once and discarded.

114
  • When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction,
  • A) it lowers the activation energy of the
    reaction.
  • B) it raises the activation energy of the
    reaction.
  • C) it acts as a reactant.
  • D) it is used once and discarded.

115
  • Which of the following statements regarding
    enzymes is true?
  • A) Enzymes are inorganic.
  • B) An enzyme's function is unaffected by changes
    in pH.
  • C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
  • D) Enzymes slow down the rate of a chemical
    reaction.

116
  • Which of the following statements regarding
    enzymes is true?
  • A) Enzymes are inorganic.
  • B) An enzyme's function is unaffected by changes
    in pH.
  • C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
  • D) Enzymes slow down the rate of a chemical
    reaction.

117
  • The shape of the _______________ on the enzyme
    determines to which ___________________ the
    enzyme can bind.
  • active area substrate
  • active site product
  • loading dock organelle
  • active site substrate

118
  • The shape of the _______________ on the enzyme
    determines to which ___________________ the
    enzyme can bind.
  • active area substrate
  • active site product
  • loading dock organelle
  • active site substrate

119
  • List at least THREE environmental factors that
    affect the reaction rate of an enzyme
  • _____________________
  • _____________________
  • _____________________
  •  

120
  • List at least THREE environmental factors that
    affect the reaction rate of an enzyme
  • pH
  • TEMPERATURE
  • CONCENTRATION OF SUBSTRATE
  • CONCENTRATION OF ENZYME
  • SALT CONCENTRATION
  •  
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