Semester 2 Final Exam Study Extravaganza!

1
Semester 2 Final Exam Study Extravaganza!

• Adapting your study guide into many questions to
  help focus your study.

2
Chapter 10Cell Growth and Division
3
1. As a cell becomes larger, its

1. Volume increases faster than its surface area.
2. Surface area increases faster than its volume.
3. Volume increases, but its surface area stays the
   same.
4. Surface area stays the same, but its volume
   increases.

4
1. As a cell becomes larger, its

• Volume increases faster than its surface area.
• Surface area increases faster than its volume.
• Volume increases, but its surface area stays the
  same.
• Surface area stays the same, but its volume
  increases.
• Think about your Great Divide Lab Results!

5
2. As a cell grows, it

1. Places more demands on its DNA.
2. Uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
3. Has more trouble moving enough materials across
   its cell membrane.
4. All of the above.

6
2. As a cell grows, it

1. Places more demands on its DNA.
2. Uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
3. Has more trouble moving enough materials across
   its cell membrane.
4. All of the above.

7
3. If the surface area of a cell increases 100
times, its volume increases about

1. 5 times.
2. 10 times.
3. 100 times.
4. 1000 times.

8
3. If the surface area of a cell increases 100
times, its volume increases about

• 5 times.
• 10 times.
• 100 times.
• 1000 times.
• 1 surface area unit 10 volume units so
• Surface area number x 10 volume

9
4. The rate at which wastes are produced by a
cell depends on the cells

1. Ratio of surface area to volume.
2. Environment.
3. Volume.
4. Surface area.

10
4. The rate at which wastes are produced by a
cell depends on the cells

1. Ratio of surface area to volume.
2. Environment.
3. Volume.
4. Surface area.

11
5. All of the following are problems that growth
causes for cells EXCEPT

1. DNA overload.
2. Excess oxygen.
3. Obtaining enough food.
4. Expelling wastes.

12
5. All of the following are problems that growth
causes for cells EXCEPT

1. DNA overload.
2. Excess oxygen.
3. Obtaining enough food.
4. Expelling wastes.

13
6. Compared to small cells, large cells have more
trouble

1. Dividing.
2. Producing daughter cells.
3. Moving needed materials in and waste products
   out.
4. Making copies of their DNA.

14
6. Compared to small cells, large cells have more
trouble

1. Dividing.
2. Producing daughter cells.
3. Moving needed materials in and waste products
   out.
4. Making copies of their DNA.

15
7. The process by which a cell divides into two
daughter cells is called

1. Cell division.
2. Metaphase.
3. Interphase.
4. Mitosis.

16
7. The process by which a cell divides into two
daughter cells is called

1. Cell division.
2. Metaphase.
3. Interphase.
4. Mitosis.

17
8. Which of the following is NOT a way that cell
division solves the problems of cell growth?

1. Cell division provides each daughter cell with
   its own copy of DNA.
2. Cell division increases the mass of the original
   cell.
3. Cell division increases the surface area of the
   original cell.
4. Cell division reduces the original cells volume.

18
8. Which of the following is NOT a way that cell
division solves the problems of cell growth?

1. Cell division provides each daughter cell with
   its own copy of DNA.
2. Cell division increases the mass of the original
   cell.
3. Cell division increases the surface area of the
   original cell.
4. Cell division reduces the original cells volume.

19
9. If a normal cell divides, you can assume that

1. Its surface area has become larger than its
   volume.
2. Its volume has become larger than its surface
   area.
3. It has grown to its full size.
4. It has grown too large to meet its needs.

20
9. If a normal cell divides, you can assume that

1. Its surface area has become larger than its
   volume.
2. Its volume has become larger than its surface
   area.
3. It has grown to its full size.
4. It has grown too large to meet its needs.

21
10. If a cells DNA were not copied before cell
division, the cell could

1. Have a DNA overload.
2. Become cancerous.
3. Fail to exchange materials.
4. Divide.

22
10. If a cells DNA were not copied before cell
division, the cell could

1. Have a DNA overload.
2. Become cancerous.
3. Fail to exchange materials.
4. Divide.

23
11. Which of the following happens when a cell
divides?

1. The cells volume increases.
2. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get
   enough oxygen and nutrients.
3. The cell has DNA overload.
4. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the
   parent cells DNA.

24
11. Which of the following happens when a cell
divides?

1. The cells volume increases.
2. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get
   enough oxygen and nutrients.
3. The cell has DNA overload.
4. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the
   parent cells DNA.

25
12. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes
visible?

1. Only during interphase.
2. Only when they are being replicated.
3. Only during cell division.
4. Only during the G1 phase.

26
12. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes
visible?

1. Only during interphase.
2. Only when they are being replicated.
3. Only during cell division.
4. Only during the G1 phase.

27
13. Which of the following is a phase in the cell
cycle?

1. G1 phase.
2. G2 phase.
3. M phase.
4. All of the above.

28
13. Which of the following is a phase in the cell
cycle?

1. G1 phase.
2. G2 phase.
3. M phase.
4. All of the above.

29
14. Which pair is correct?

1. G1 phase, DNA replication.
2. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis.
3. S phase, cell division
4. M phase, cell growth

30
14. Which pair is correct?

1. G1 phase, DNA replication.
2. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis.
3. S phase, cell division
4. M phase, cell growth

31
15. When during the cell cycle is a cells DNA
replicated?

1. G1 phase.
2. G2 phase.
3. S phase.
4. M phase.

32
15. When during the cell cycle is a cells DNA
replicated?

1. G1 phase.
2. G2 phase.
3. S phase.
4. M phase.

33
16. Which event occurs during interphase?

1. The cell grows.
2. Centrioles appear.
3. Spindle fibers begin to form.
4. Centromeres divide.

34
16. Which event occurs during interphase?

1. The cell grows.
2. Centrioles appear.
3. Spindle fibers begin to form.
4. Centromeres divide.

35
17. Which of the following is a correct statement
about the events of the cell cycle?

1. Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases.
2. DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
3. The M phase is usually the longest phase.
4. Interphase consists of the G1, S, and G2 phases.

36
17. Which of the following is a correct statement
about the events of the cell cycle?

1. Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases.
2. DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
3. The M phase is usually the longest phase.
4. Interphase consists of the G1, S, and G2 phases.

37
18. Which of the following is NOT a correct
statement about the events of the cell cycle?

1. Interphase is usually the longest phase.
2. DNA replicates during the S phase.
3. Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
4. The cell grows during the G2 phase.

38
18. Which of the following is NOT a correct
statement about the events of the cell cycle?

1. Interphase is usually the longest phase.
2. DNA replicates during the S phase.
3. Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
4. The cell grows during the G2 phase.

39
19. Cell division is represented in the figure
provided by the letter...

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.

40
19. Cell division is represented in the figure
provided by the letter...

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.

41
20. The cell cycle is the

1. Series of events that cells go through as they
   grow and divide.
2. Period of time between the birth and the death of
   a cell.
3. Time from prophase until cytokinesis.
4. Time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.

42
20. The cell cycle is the

1. Series of events that cells go through as they
   grow and divide.
2. Period of time between the birth and the death of
   a cell.
3. Time from prophase until cytokinesis.
4. Time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.

43
21. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?

1. Cytokinesis.
2. Interphase.
3. Prophase.
4. S phase.

44
21. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?

1. Cytokinesis.
2. Interphase.
3. Prophase.
4. S phase.

45
22. The first phase of mitosis is called

1. Prophase.
2. Anaphase.
3. Metaphase.
4. Interphase.

46
22. The first phase of mitosis is called

1. Prophase.
2. Anaphase.
3. Metaphase.
4. Interphase.

47
23. During which phase of mitosis do the
chromosomes line up along the middle of the
dividing cell?

1. Prophase.
2. Telophase.
3. Metaphase.
4. Anaphase.

48
23. During which phase of mitosis do the
chromosomes line up along the middle of the
dividing cell?

1. Prophase.
2. Telophase.
3. Metaphase.
4. Anaphase.

49
24. Which of the following represents the phases
of mitosis in their proper sequence?

1. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
2. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
   telophase.
3. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase.
4. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase,
   ctyokinesis.

50
24. Which of the following represents the phases
of mitosis in their proper sequence?

1. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
2. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
   telophase.
3. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase.
4. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase,
   ctyokinesis.

51
25. What is the role of the spindle during
mitosis?

1. It helps separate the chromosomes.
2. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
3. It duplicates the DNA.
4. It divides the cell in half.

52
25. What is the role of the spindle during
mitosis?

1. It helps separate the chromosomes.
2. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
3. It duplicates the DNA.
4. It divides the cell in half.

53
26. One difference between cell division in plant
cells and in animal cells is that plant cells
have

1. Centrioles.
2. Centromeres.
3. A cell plate.
4. Chromatin.

54
26. One difference between cell division in plant
cells and in animal cells is that plant cells
have

1. Centrioles.
2. Centromeres.
3. A cell plate.
4. Chromatin.

55
27. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent
cell having 3 chromosomes will produce two
daughter cells, each containing

1. One chromosome.
2. Three chromosomes.
3. Six chromosomes.
4. Twelve chromosomes.

56
27. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent
cell having 3 chromosomes will produce two
daughter cells, each containing

1. One chromosome.
2. Three chromosomes.
3. Six chromosomes.
4. Twelve chromosomes.

57
28. What happens when cells come into contact
with other cells?

1. They divide more quickly.
2. They stop growing.
3. They produce cyclins.
4. They produce p53.

58
28. What happens when cells come into contact
with other cells?

1. They divide more quickly.
2. They stop growing.
3. They produce cyclins.
4. They produce p53.

59
29. Which of the following explains why normal
cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing
once they have covered the bottom of the dish?

1. The cells lack cyclin.
2. The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
3. Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
4. Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective
   p53.

60
29. Which of the following explains why normal
cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing
once they have covered the bottom of the dish?

1. The cells lack cyclin.
2. The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
3. Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
4. Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective
   p53.

61
30. Which of the following is an internal
regulator of the cell cycle?

1. Cyclins.
2. Growth factors.
3. The mitotic spindle.
4. Cancer cells.

62
30. Which of the following is an internal
regulator of the cell cycle?

1. Cyclins.
2. Growth factors.
3. The mitotic spindle.
4. Cancer cells.

63
31. Cancer cells form masses of cells called

1. Tumors.
2. Cyclins.
3. Growth factors.
4. P53.

64
31. Cancer cells form masses of cells called

1. Tumors.
2. Cyclins.
3. Growth factors.
4. P53.

65
32. What is a tumor?

1. An accumulation of cyclins.
2. A mass of cancer cells.
3. The rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a
   wound.
4. A defective p53 gene.

66
32. What is a tumor?

1. An accumulation of cyclins.
2. A mass of cancer cells.
3. The rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a
   wound.
4. A defective p53 gene.

67
Chapters 11 and 14Genetics
68
1. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

1. Flowering.
2. Gamete formation.
3. The inheritance of traits.
4. Cross-pollination.

69
1. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

1. Flowering.
2. Gamete formation.
3. The inheritance of traits.
4. Cross-pollination.

70
2. Offspring that result from crosses between
parents with different traits

1. Are true-breeding.
2. Make up the F2 generation.
3. Make up the parental generation.
4. Are called hybrids.

71
2. Offspring that result from crosses between
parents with different traits

1. Are true-breeding.
2. Make up the F2 generation.
3. Make up the parental generation.
4. Are called hybrids.

72
3. The chemical factors that determine traits are
called

1. Alleles.
2. Traits.
3. Genes.
4. Characters.

73
3. The chemical factors that determine traits are
called

1. Alleles.
2. Traits.
3. Genes.
4. Characters.

74
4. The principle of dominance states that

1. All alleles are dominant.
2. All alleles are recessive.
3. Some alleles are dominant and others are
   recessive.
4. Alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.

75
4. The principle of dominance states that

1. All alleles are dominant.
2. All alleles are recessive.
3. Some alleles are dominant and others are
   recessive.
4. Alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.

76
5. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall
plants with true-breeding short plants, all the
offspring were tall because

1. The allele for tall plants is recessive.
2. The allele for short plants is dominant.
3. The allele for tall plants is dominant.
4. They were tree-breeding like their parents.

77
5. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall
plants with true-breeding short plants, all the
offspring were tall because

1. The allele for tall plants is recessive.
2. The allele for short plants is dominant.
3. The allele for tall plants is dominant.
4. They were tree-breeding like their parents.

78
6. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed
with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in
the F2 generation because

1. Some of the F2 plants produced gametes that
   carried the allele for shortness.
2. The allele for shortness is dominant.
3. The allele for shortness and the allele for
   tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced
   gametes.
4. They inherited an allele for shortness from one
   parent and an allele for tallness from the other
   parent.

79
6. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed
with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in
the F2 generation because

1. Some of the F2 plants produced gametes that
   carried the allele for shortness.
2. The allele for shortness is dominant.
3. The allele for shortness and the allele for
   tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced
   gametes.
4. They inherited an allele for shortness from one
   parent and an allele for tallness from the other
   parent.

80
7. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed
with a short plant. If alleles did not segregate
during gamete formation

1. All of the F1 plants would be short.
2. Some of the F1 plants would be tall and some
   would be short.
3. All of the F2 would be short.
4. All of the F2 plants would be tall.

81
7. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed
with a short plant. If alleles did not segregate
during gamete formation

1. All of the F1 plants would be short.
2. Some of the F1 plants would be tall and some
   would be short.
3. All of the F2 would be short.
4. All of the F2 plants would be tall.

82
8. When you flip a coin, what is the probability
that it will come up tails?

1. ½
2. ¼
3. 1/8
4. 1

83
8. When you flip a coin, what is the probability
that it will come up tails?

1. ½ ? Correct answer
2. ¼
3. 1/8
4. 1

84
9. In the P generation, a tall plant is crossed
with a short plant. The probability that an F2
plant will be tall is

1. 25
2. 50
3. 75
4. 100

85
9. In the P generation, a tall plant is crossed
with a short plant. The probability that an F2
plant will be tall is

1. 25
2. 50
3. 75 ? F2 generation not F1!!!
4. 100

86
10. Organisms that have two identical alleles for
a particular trait are said to be

1. Hybrid.
2. Homozygous.
3. Heterozygous.
4. Dominant.

87
10. Organisms that have two identical alleles for
a particular trait are said to be

1. Hybrid.
2. Homozygous.
3. Heterozygous.
4. Dominant.

88
11. The Punnett square in Figure 3 shows that the
gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color

1. Assort independently.
2. Are linked.
3. Have the same alleles.
4. Are always homozygous.

89
11. The Punnett square in Figure 3 shows that the
gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color

1. Assort independently.
2. Are linked.
3. Have the same alleles.
4. Are always homozygous.

90
12. How many different allele combinations would
be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant
who genotype was RrYY?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16

91
12. How many different allele combinations would
be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant
who genotype was RrYY?

1. 2 ? Correct answer (RY and rY only)
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16

92
13. Situations in which one allele for a gene is
not completely dominant over another allele for
that gene are called

1. Multiple alleles
2. Incomplete dominance.
3. Polygenic inheritance.
4. Multiple genes.

93
13. Situations in which one allele for a gene is
not completely dominant over another allele for
that gene are called

1. Multiple alleles
2. Incomplete dominance.
3. Polygenic inheritance.
4. Multiple genes.

94
14. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white
chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring
(BBWW). This type of inheritance is known as

1. Incomplete dominance.
2. Polygenic inheritance.
3. Codominance.
4. Multiple alleles.

95
14. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white
chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring
(BBWW). This type of inheritance is known as

1. Incomplete dominance.
2. Polygenic inheritance.
3. Codominance.
4. Multiple alleles.

96
15. Variation in human skin color is an example
of

1. Incomplete dominance.
2. Codominance.
3. Polygenic traits.
4. Multiple alleles.

97
15. Variation in human skin color is an example
of

1. Incomplete dominance.
2. Codominance.
3. Polygenic traits.
4. Multiple alleles.

98
16. A male and female bison that are both
heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation produce
an albino offspring (aa). Which of Mendels
principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?

1. Dominance only.
2. Independent assortment only.
3. Dominance and segregation.
4. Segregation only.

99
16. A male and female bison that are both
heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation produce
an albino offspring (aa). Which of Mendels
principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?

1. Dominance only.
2. Independent assortment only.
3. Dominance and segregation.
4. Segregation only.

100
17. Gametes are produced by the process of

1. Mitosis.
2. Meiosis.
3. Crossing-over.
4. Replication.

101
17. Gametes are produced by the process of

1. Mitosis.
2. Meiosis.
3. Crossing-over.
4. Replication.

102
18. Gametes have

1. Homologous chromosomes.
2. Twice the number of chromosomes found in body
   cells.
3. Two sets of chromosomes.
4. One allele for each gene.

103
18. Gametes have

1. Homologous chromosomes.
2. Twice the number of chromosomes found in body
   cells.
3. Two sets of chromosomes.
4. One allele for each gene.

104
19. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the
formation of

1. Diploid cells.
2. Haploid cells.
3. 2N daughter cells.
4. Body cells.

105
19. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the
formation of

1. Diploid cells.
2. Haploid cells.
3. 2N daughter cells.
4. Body cells.

106
20. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis,
unlike meiosis. Which of the following is the
likely reason?

1. Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
2. Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
3. A cell undergoing mitosis does not have
   homologous chromosomes.
4. There is no prophase during mitosis.

107
20. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis,
unlike meiosis. Which of the following is the
likely reason?

1. Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
2. Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
3. A cell undergoing mitosis does not have
   homologous chromosomes.
4. There is no prophase during mitosis.

108
21. If the gene for seed color and the gene for
seed shape in pea plants were linked

1. All of Mendels F1 plants would have produced
   wrinkled, green peas.
2. Mendels F2 plants would have exhibited a
   different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
   shape.
3. Mendels F1 plants would have exhibited a
   different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
   shape.
4. All of Mendels P plants would have produced
   wrinkled, green peas.

109
21. If the gene for seed color and the gene for
seed shape in pea plants were linked

1. All of Mendels F1 plants would have produced
   wrinkled, green peas.
2. Mendels F2 plants would have exhibited a
   different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
   shape.
3. Mendels F1 plants would have exhibited a
   different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
   shape.
4. All of Mendels P plants would have produced
   wrinkled, green peas.

110
22. The farther apart two genes are located on a
chromosome, the

1. Less likely they are to be inherited together.
2. More likely they are to be linked.
3. Less likely they are to assort independently.
4. Less likely they are to be separated by a
   crossover during meiosis.

111
22. The farther apart two genes are located on a
chromosome, the

1. Less likely they are to be inherited together.
2. More likely they are to be linked.
3. Less likely they are to assort independently.
4. Less likely they are to be separated by a
   crossover during meiosis.

112
23. On a normal human karyotype, how many
chromosomes are there?

1. 2
2. 23
3. 44
4. 46

113
23. On a normal human karyotype, how many
chromosomes are there?

1. 2
2. 23
3. 44
4. 46 ? Correct answer

114
24. Which of the following are shown on a
karyotype?

1. Homologous chromosomes
2. Sex chromosomes
3. Autosomes
4. All of the above.

115
24. Which of the following are shown on a
karyotype?

1. Homologous chromosomes
2. Sex chromosomes
3. Autosomes
4. All of the above.

116
25. In humans, a males has

1. One X chromosome only.
2. Two X chromosomes.
3. One X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
4. Two Y chromosomes.

117
25. In humans, a males has

1. One X chromosome only.
2. Two X chromosomes.
3. One X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
4. Two Y chromosomes.

118
26. Which of the following would you be least
likely to see in a pedigree?

1. All of the symbols are unshaded.
2. All of the symbols are shaded.
3. All of the symbols are squares.
4. About half of the symbols are circles.

119
26. Which of the following would you be least
likely to see in a pedigree?

1. All of the symbols are unshaded.
2. All of the symbols are shaded.
3. All of the symbols are squares.
4. About half of the symbols are circles.

120
27. If a man with blood type A and a woman with
blood type B produce an offspring, what might be
the offsprings blood type?

1. AB or O
2. A, B, or O
3. A, B, AB, or O
4. AB only

121
27. If a man with blood type A and a woman with
blood type B produce an offspring, what might be
the offsprings blood type?

• AB or O
• A, B, or O
• A, B, AB, or O ? Correct answer
• (AA, BB, AO, BO)
• AB only

122
28. Most sex-linked genes are located on

1. The autosomes.
2. The X chromosome only.
3. The Y chromosome only.
4. Both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.

123
28. Most sex-linked genes are located on

1. The autosomes.
2. The X chromosome only. (Not all!)
3. The Y chromosome only.
4. Both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.

124
29. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Females cannot have hemophilia.
2. The father of a colorblind boy may be colorblind.
3. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
4. The mother of a colorblind boy must be
   colorblind.

125
29. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Females cannot have hemophilia.
2. The father of a colorblind boy may be colorblind.
3. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
4. The mother of a colorblind boy must be
   colorblind.

126
30. The failure of chromosomes to separate during
meiosis is called

1. Nondisjunction.
2. X-chromosome inactivation.
3. Turners syndrome.
4. Down syndrome.

127
30. The failure of chromosomes to separate during
meiosis is called

1. Nondisjunction.
2. X-chromosome inactivation.
3. Turners syndrome.
4. Down syndrome.

128
31. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis

1. Only two gametes may form instead of four.
2. Some gametes may have an extra copy of some
   genes.
3. The chromatids do not separate.
4. It occurs during prophase.

129
31. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis

1. Only two gametes may form instead of four.
2. Some gametes may have an extra copy of some
   genes.
3. The chromatids do not separate.
4. It occurs during prophase.

130
Chapter 12DNA, RNA, Protein Synthesis
131
1. Figure 1 shows the structure of a(an)

1. DNA molecule.
2. Amino acid.
3. RNA molecule.
4. Protein.

132
1. Figure 1 shows the structure of a(an)

1. DNA molecule.
2. Amino acid.
3. RNA molecule.
4. Protein.

133
2. In Figure 1, X represents

1. A nucleic acid.
2. A chromosome.
3. A nucleotide.
4. A sugar.

134
2. In Figure 1, X represents

1. A nucleic acid.
2. A chromosome.
3. A nucleotide.
4. A sugar.

135
3. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage
of

1. Adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the
   percentage of guanine molecules.
2. Pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the
   percentage of purines.
3. Purines in DNA is much greater than the
   percentage of pyrimidines.
4. Cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than
   the percentage of guanine molecules.

136
3. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage
of

1. Adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the
   percentage of guanine molecules.
2. Pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the
   percentage of purines.
3. Purines in DNA is much greater than the
   percentage of pyrimidines.
4. Cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than
   the percentage of guanine molecules.

137
4. During mitosis, the

1. DNA molecules unwind.
2. Histones and DNA molecules separate.
3. DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
4. Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.

138
4. During mitosis, the

1. DNA molecules unwind.
2. Histones and DNA molecules separate.
3. DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
4. Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.

139
4. During mitosis, the

1. DNA molecules unwind.
2. Histones and DNA molecules separate.
3. DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
4. Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.

140
5. Which of the following include all the others?

1. DNA molecules.
2. Histones.
3. Chromosomes.
4. Nucleosomes.

141
5. Which of the following include all the others?

1. DNA molecules.
2. Histones.
3. Chromosomes.
4. Nucleosomes.

142
6. DNA is copied during a process called

1. Replication.
2. Translation.
3. Transcription.
4. Transformation.

143
6. DNA is copied during a process called

1. Replication.
2. Translation.
3. Transcription.
4. Transformation.

144
7. What is the structure of DNA called?

1. Single-stranded.
2. Ladder.
3. Double helix.
4. Blob of genetic material.

145
7. What is the structure of DNA called?

1. Single-stranded.
2. Ladder.
3. Double helix. (one new strand, one old strand)
4. Blob of genetic material.

146
8. RNA contains the sugar

1. Ribose.
2. Deoxyribose.
3. Phosphate groups.
4. Thymine.

147
8. RNA contains the sugar

1. Ribose.
2. Deoxyribose.
3. Phosphate groups.
4. Thymine.

148
9. Which of the following are found in both DNA
and RNA?

1. Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine.
2. Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine.
3. Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine.
4. Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine.

149
9. Which of the following are found in both DNA
and RNA?

1. Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine.
2. Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine.
3. Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine.
4. Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine.

150
10. How many types of RNA are there?

• 1
• 3
• Hundreds
• Thousands

151
10. How many types of RNA are there?

• 1
• 3 ? Correct answer
• Hundreds
• Thousands

152
11. Which of the following are copied from DNA?

1. mRNA only
2. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
3. mRNA and tRNA only
4. Proteins

153
11. Which of the following are copied from DNA?

1. mRNA only
2. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
3. mRNA and tRNA only
4. Proteins

154
12. Which of the following statements is true?

1. A promoter is part of an intron.
2. A pre-mRNA molecule is longer than the gene from
   which the molecule was transcribed.
3. Introns are sequences of DNA.
4. Any mRNA molecules made from the same gene are
   always edited the same way.

155
12. Which of the following statements is true?

1. A promoter is part of an intron.
2. A pre-mRNA molecule is longer than the gene from
   which the molecule was transcribed.
3. Introns are sequences of DNA.
4. Any mRNA molecules made from the same gene are
   always edited the same way.

156
13. What does Figure 2 show?

1. Anticodons
2. The order in which amino acids are linked
3. The code for splicing mRNA
4. The genetic code

157
13. What does Figure 2 show?

1. Anticodons
2. The order in which amino acids are linked
3. The code for splicing mRNA
4. The genetic code

158
14. How many codons are needed to specify 5 amino
acids?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

159
14. How many codons are needed to specify 5 amino
acids?

1. 5 (codons not bases!)
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

160
15. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be
specified by more than one kind of codon?

1. Some codons have the same sequence of
   nucleotides.
2. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only
   20 amino acids.
3. Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
4. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine
   and serves as the start codon for protein
   synthesis.

161
15. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be
specified by more than one kind of codon?

1. Some codons have the same sequence of
   nucleotides.
2. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only
   20 amino acids.
3. Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
4. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine
   and serves as the start codon for protein
   synthesis.

162
16. Which of the following terms is LEAST closely
related to the others?

1. Intron
2. tRNA
3. Polypeptide
4. anticodon

163
16. Which of the following terms is LEAST closely
related to the others?

1. Intron
2. tRNA
3. Polypeptide
4. anticodon

164
17. During translation, the type of amino acid
that is added to the growing polypeptide depends
on the

1. Codon on the mRNA only.
2. Anticodon on the mRNA only.
3. Anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is
   attached only.
4. Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA
   to which the amino acid is attached.

165
17. During translation, the type of amino acid
that is added to the growing polypeptide depends
on the

1. Codon on the mRNA only.
2. Anticodon on the mRNA only.
3. Anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is
   attached only.
4. Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA
   to which the amino acid is attached.

166
18. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of
the genetic code?

1. rRNA
2. tRNA
3. mRNA
4. RNA polymerase

167
18. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of
the genetic code?

1. rRNA
2. tRNA
3. mRNA
4. RNA polymerase

168
19. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Some genes code for enzymes.
2. The instructions for making some proteins are not
   specified by genes.
3. An organisms inherited traits depend on
   proteins.
4. An organisms genes determine its inherited
   traits.

169
19. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Some genes code for enzymes.
2. The instructions for making some proteins are not
   specified by genes.
3. An organisms inherited traits depend on
   proteins.
4. An organisms genes determine its inherited
   traits.

170
20. Which of the following is not a gene mutation?

1. Inversion.
2. Insertion.
3. Deletion.
4. Substitution.

171
20. Which of the following is not a gene mutation?

1. Inversion.
2. Insertion.
3. Deletion.
4. Substitution.

172
21. Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift
mutation?

1. Substitution.
2. Insertion.
3. Deletion.
4. Point mutation.

173
21. Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift
mutation?

1. Substitution.
2. Insertion.
3. Deletion.
4. Point mutation.

174
22. Which of the following is NOT generally part
of a eukaryotic gene?

1. Operon
2. TATA box
3. Promoter sequences
4. Enhancer sequences

175
22. Which of the following is NOT generally part
of a eukaryotic gene?

1. Operon
2. TATA box
3. Promoter sequences
4. Enhancer sequences

176
23. In E. coli, the lac operon controls the

1. Breakdown of lactose.
2. Production of lactose.
3. Breakdown of glucose.
4. Production of glucose.

177
23. In E. coli, the lac operon controls the

1. Breakdown of lactose.
2. Production of lactose.
3. Breakdown of glucose.
4. Production of glucose.

178
24. Gene regulation in eukaryotes

1. Usually involves operons.
2. Is simpler than in prokaryotes.
3. Allows for cell specialization.
4. Includes the action of an operator region.

179
24. Gene regulation in eukaryotes

1. Usually involves operons.
2. Is simpler than in prokaryotes.
3. Allows for cell specialization.
4. Includes the action of an operator region.

180
25. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
2. Hox genes that are found in different animals are
   very different from each other.
3. Hox genes control the normal development of an
   animal.
4. Hox genes occur in clusters.

181
25. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
2. Hox genes that are found in different animals are
   very different from each other.
3. Hox genes control the normal development of an
   animal.
4. Hox genes occur in clusters.

182
26. Hox genes

1. Are regulated by operons.
2. Are found in bacteria.
3. Are not found in humans.
4. Determine the location of a dogs ears.

183
26. Hox genes

1. Are regulated by operons.
2. Are found in bacteria.
3. Are not found in humans.
4. Determine the location of a dogs ears.

184
27. What process is being shown in figure 3?

1. Replication
2. Transcription
3. Translation
4. Jigsaw puzzling

185
27. What process is being shown in figure 3?

1. Replication
2. Transcription
3. Translation
4. Jigsaw puzzling

186
28. Which structure in Figure 3 is a codon?

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. F

187
28. Which structure in Figure 3 is a codon?

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. F ? Correct answer

188
29. Which structure in Figure 3 is a ribosome?

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. F

189
29. Which structure in Figure 3 is a ribosome?

1. A ? Correct answer
2. D
3. B
4. F

190
30. In the figure below, A, B, and C are three
types of

1. Proteins
2. RNA
3. DNA
4. Pictures

A
B
C
191
30. In the figure below, A, B, and C are three
types of

1. Proteins
2. RNA
3. DNA
4. Pictures

A
B
C
192
31. In the figure below, B represents

1. A protein
2. mRNA
3. tRNA
4. rRNA

A
B
C
193
31. In the figure below, B represents

1. A protein
2. mRNA
3. tRNA
4. rRNA

A
B
C