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B757 Review Questions

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With at least two generators working and three autopilots armed for the ... Do the autopilots do anything different to the stab trim during a LAND 2 approach? ... – PowerPoint PPT presentation

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Title: B757 Review Questions


1
B757 Review Questions
2
AutoFlight
  • At what RA does flare mode engage?
  • 45 feet RA

3
AutoFlight
  • When does autopilot electrical isolation occur?
  • With at least two generators working and three
    autopilots armed for the approach.

4
AutoFlight
  • After electrical isolation, what is the power
    source for the center autopilot?
  • Battery/Standby system

5
AutoFlight
  • If an engine generator were to fail on a multi
    autopilot approach above 200, what would happen
    to the AC power distribution to the auto pilots?
  • After the generator failure the center autopilot
    switches from center AC bus to its normal source
    of power, Left AC bus.

6
AutoFlight
  • If during a land three approach an AP were to
    fail, could the approach be continued to an auto
    land safely?
  • Yes. A single fault would not prevent the
    remaining two autopilots from completing the auto
    landing.

7
AutoFlight
  • Rudder control is added by the AP when?
  • Only during multiple AP approaches.

8
AutoFlight
  • When is GA mode armed?
  • When the flaps are not up or GS is captured

9
AutoFlight
  • Can the AP disconnect bar disconnect all 3 AP?
  • Yes, but will not silence the horn

10
AutoFlight
  • Is over/under speed protection available in VS
    mode?
  • No

11
AutoFlight
  • What percentage is scheduled on the TMC for CLIMB
    1, and CLIMB 2?
  • 94 and 88

12
AutoFlight
  • What is the scheduled pitch attitude after
    takeoff at 400
  • V2 15

13
AutoFlight
  • During a coupled missed approach, an engine fails
    just as the GA switch is activated. Which action
    must the pilot take to prevent yaw from rolling
    the aircraft?
  • None. There is rudder input from the auto flight
    system preventing a yaw from rolling the
    aircraft. However, once a pitch or roll command
    is initiated by the pilot, he must now manually
    deflect the rudder.

14
AutoFlight
  • When is the GA mode armed?
  • When the flaps are not up, or GS is captured.

15
AutoFlight
  • Do the autopilots do anything different to the
    stab trim during a LAND 2 approach?
  • Yes. At 330 feet RA and increment of nose up trim
    is automatically applied.

16
AutoFlight
  • Can you dispatch with both Yaw Dampers
    inoperative?
  • No, check MEL

17
AutoFlight
  • When does rudder channeling commence on a multi
    channel approach?
  • Below 1500 RA

18
AutoFlight
  • When is the normal bus-tie operation
    isolated/inhibited on a multi channel approach?
  • 200 RA

19
AutoFlight
  • What does the autopilot amber annunciator light
    indicate?
  • Indicates that some operating mode of the engaged
    autopilot has failed, but the auto pilot remains
    engaged.

20
AutoFlight
  • Is over speed protection available in Flight
    level change mode?
  • Yes.

21
AutoFlight
  • What is the main power source of the left and
    center FCCs?
  • Left main AC bus and Center AC bus.

22
AutoFlight
  • True or false the autopilot trims nose up at
    330 on CAT III land II approach?
  • True.

23
AutoFlight
  • Is manual rudder input restricted during auto
    land operation?
  • Yes, manual rudder input is restricted due to A/P
    rudder control from 1500 feet through GA.

24
AutoFlight
  • What is a good way to monitor the center FCC in
    flight?
  • Use the center Autopilot

25
AutoFlight
  • TRUE/FALSE During an Autoland Roll Out mode
    operation the Autopilots lower the nose wheel to
    the runway at 5 feet R/A plus 2 seconds with the
    pitch attitude less than 2 degrees
  • TRUE

26
AutoFlight
  • Should you follow the flight director pitch bar
    at lift off?
  • No, you would probably get a tail strike

27
AutoFlight
  • What will the A/T system do when the thrust
    reversers are selected after landing?
  • A/T mode disengages

28
AutoFlight
  • Before the autoflight system will climb using
    FLCH,________ and then the desired AFDS pitch
    change is made
  • A higher altitude has to be set in the Altitude
    window

29
AutoFlight
  • During the takeoff roll, EPR appears in both the
    FMA A/T windows until what speed?
  • 80 knots

30
AutoFlight
  • All AFDS modes can be disengaged by selecting
    another command mode or by disengaging the A/P
    and_____
  • turning off the Flight Directors

31
AutoFlight
  • During the takeoff roll, the F/D pitch bar
    commands a fixed attitude of
  • 8 degrees nose up

32
AutoFlight
  • Can the A/T be operated independently of the
    flight director and the autopilot?
  • Yes

33
AutoFlight
  • After liftoff, the F/D pitch bar initially moves
    to an attitude of
  • 15 degrees nose up

34
AutoFlight
  • TRUE/FALSE The vertical speed mode will command
    the aircraft to leave the current altitude when a
    new altitude mode has not been selected.
  • TRUE

35
AutoFlight
  • When GA is engaged, the AFDS controls pitch and
    roll while the A/T
  • Increases thrust to establish a 2,000 fpm climb

36
AutoFlight
  • TRUE/FALSE During the autoland rollout mode
    operation, rollout guidance continues to full
    stop or until the A/Ps are disengaged.
  • TRUE

37
AutoFlight
  • TRUE/FALSE During the autoland rollout mode
    operation the F/D roll command bar provides
    directional steering information.
  • TRUE

38
AutoFlight
  • Active FMA modes are displayed in large green
    letters in the top part of the annunciator
    windows. Armed FMA modes are indicated
    _______underneath the green annunciations.
  • In smaller, white letters

39
AutoFlight
  • How many FCCs are normally used for A/P
    operations during an automatic approach, landing
    and rollout, as well as the initial phase of a
    go-around?
  • Three

40
AutoFlight
  • TRUE/FALSE The V/S mode has no stall or
    overspeed protection and annunciations
  • TRUE

41
AutoFlight
  • When the LOC is captured, the AFDS will command
    up to _____ degrees regardless of the MCP bank
    angle selector.
  • 30
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