MODULE 2

1
MODULE 2

• BIOCHEMISTRY PHARMACOGNOSY

2
1. Which carbon in the sugars is responsible for
the difference between the two nucleic acids?

• A. Carbon 1 C. Carbon 3
• B. Carbon 2 D. Carbon 4
• - RIBOSE in RNA has a hydroxyl group in the
  second carbon, while 2-Deoxy-D-Ribose in DNA, has
  none.

3
2. Which of the following is responsible for the
acidic character of nucleic acids?

• Phosphate group
• Nucleotides
• Nitrogenous bases
• Nucleic acids are not acids
• -Nucleotides PO4 Sugar Nitrogenous base
• -Nitrogenous base A, G, T, C, and U

4
3. This refers to noncoding regions that
alternate with coding regions in the polypeptide
sequence.

• A. Exon C. Promoter
• B. Intron D. Repressor
• INTRON derived from the term intragenic region
  removed by RNA splicing.
• EXON nucleic acid in the mature form of an RNA
  molecule
• PROMOTER region that facilitates transcription
• REPRESSOR prevents gene expression

5
4. What type of extraction process is employed in
obtaining mustard oil?

• A. Water Distillation
• B. Water Steam Distillation
• C. Direct Steam Distillation
• D. Enzymatic Hydrolysis
• - Glycosidic volatile oils such as mustard oil
  are obtained by enzymatic hydrolysis of the
  glycoside

6
5. It is regarded as the ginseng of Europe
because it is extensively cultivated and utilized
in European folk medicine.

• A. Feverfew C. Eucaplytus
• B. Camphor D. Chamomile
• - Ginseng of Europe CHAMOMILE

7
6. This refers to the solid resin obtained from
Pinus palustris which is used as stiffening agent
in cerates, plasters and ointments

• Jalap C. Colophony E. B and C
• Rosin D. A and B
• - Pinus palustris commonly known as longleaf
  pine

8
7. This is a rare human disorder which progresses
to photosensitivity caused by inherited
exonuclease deficiency.

• Blooms syndrome
• Fanconis anemia
• Hodgkins lymphoma
• Xeroderma pigmentosa
• -XP leads to malignant melanoma, basal and
  squamous cell carcinomas

9
8. This chemotherapeutic agent binds to bacterial
RNA polymerase.

• A. PZA C. Bleomycin
• B. Actinomycin D D. Rifampicin
• Rifampicin specifically binds to a DNA-dependent
  RNA polymerase preventing transcription and
  translation.
• May be represented as R, RIF, RMP, RA, RF

10
9. Random coils and triple helices are examples
to what protein structure?

• A. Primary C. Tertiary
• B. Secondary D. Quaternary
• PRIMARY sequential arrangement
• TERTIARY 3D structure as defined by atomic
  position
• QUATERNARY arrangement of multi-subunit
  complex

11
10. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid.

• A. Tyrosine C. Threonine
• B. Tryptophan D. Serine
• - SEROTONIN is 5-HT, 5-hydoxytryptamine

12
11. These are small, extra chromosomal circular
DNA molecules found in prokaryotes.

• A. Nucleoli C. Plasmids
• B. Genes D. Histones
• Histones alkaline proteins
• Genes unit of heredity
• Nucleoli site of rRNA transcription and
  assembly

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12. These are organelles that contain the enzyme
for pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, beta
oxidation of fatty acids, oxidative
phosphorylation and ETC.

• A. Golgi Apparatus C. Nucleus
• B. Lysosomes D. Mitochondria
• Most of the energy-producing process happens in
  the mitochondria.
• PPP is in the cytosol or in plastids

14
13. This DNA is has a special left handed helical
structure.

• A. A-DNA C. Z-DNA
• B. B-DNA D. F-DNA

15
14. This type of mutation occurs when the codon
containing the changed base may become a
termination codon?

• Nonsense mutation
• Missense mutation
• Silent mutation
• Transitional mutation

16
15. This enzyme is responsible for removing the
RNA primer on the DNA.

• A. Exonuclease C. RNA polymerase
• B. DNA ligase D. DNA polymerase
• Exonuclease cleaves nucleotide
• RNApol enzyme ersponsible for creating RNA from
  DNA
• DNA ligase joins DNA together

17
16. Myoglobin and haemoglobin possess a cyclic
tetrapyrole, heme, as a prosthetic group. Which
ion is found centrally located in the heme?

• A. Mg C. Ca
• B. Al D. Fe
• - HEME Fe, IRON

18
17. Wermicke-Korsakoff syndrome is presented as
acute confusion, ataxia, and ophtalmoplegia can
be treated with which of the following?

• A. Riboflavin C. Thiamine
• B. Ascorbic acid D. Panthothenic acid
• WERMICKE-KORSAKOFF, thimaine deficiency or
  beri-beri

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18. What color is the visible result for
Ninhydrin test?

• A. Red C. Violet
• B. Yellow D. Blue

20
19. Animal employed in the assay of digitalis
glycosides

• A. Dog C. Pigeon
• B. Cat D. Rabbit
• - Cardiontonic activity is important to be
  assayed to assess digitalis potency.
• - Cardiac arrest in pigeons is the end point

21
20. Pepsinogen is an example of a what?

• A. Apoenzyme C. Cofactor
• B. Holoenzyme D. Zymogen
• Apoenzyme enzymes that requires a cofactor
• Holoenzyme Apoenzyme w/ cofactor
• Cofactor additional components that renders
  full enzyme activity

22
21. The glycosidic bond form in glycosides is an
example of?

• A. Ester bond C. Ketone bond
• B. Ether bond D. Covalent bond

23
22. The digestion of carbohydrates begins where?

• A. Stomach C. Esophagus
• B. Small intestine D. Mouth
• - Amylase is present in human saliva

24
23. ?-amylase cleaves amylose to what?

• Maltose and maltotriose
• Glucose and glucotriose
• Fructose and maltose
• Xylose and fructose
• - Amylose is a linear polymer composed of
  D-glucose

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24. Peanut oil is known as

• A. Rapeseed oil C. Mani oil
• B. Arachis oil D. Teel oil

26
25. The site for citric acid cycle.

• A. Mitochondria C. Nucleus
• B. Ribosomes D. Cytosol

27
26. The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in the
__________ of liver, kidney and muscles.

• A. Motichondria C. Nucleus
• B. Ribosomes D. Cytosol

28
27. What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of
Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate to citrate?

• Citrate synthase
• Isocitrate dehydrogenase
• Fumarase
• Malate dehydrogenase

29
28. An ipecac preparation, which is a component
of poison antidote kits

• Ipecac fluid extract
• Dovers powder
• Ipecac syrup
• Emetine HCl
• Powdered Ipecac

30
29. The citric acid cycle is an example of what
metabolism?

• A. Anabolic C. Amphibolic
• B. Catabolic D. NOTA

31
30. These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol

• A. Fixed oils and fats C. Sterols
• B. Waxes D. Lipids

32
31. What is used to culture measles virus?

• A. Agar C. Monkey
• B. Armadillo D. Avian embryo tissue
• - Measles virus Is cultured in either avian
  embryo tissue or human diploid tissue

33
32. This refers to starch that has been
mechanically or chemically processed to rupture
all or pat of the granules in the presence of
water

• Sodium starch glyconate
• Hetastarch
• Pregelatinized starch
• AOTA
• - Pregelatinized starch is slightly soluble to
  soluble in cold water. It is used as a tablet
  excipient.

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33. Xylose is used as a/an

• A. Diuretic C. Binder
• B. Pharmaceutic excipient D. Diagnostic aid
• - Xylose absorbed in the small intestine but not
  well metabolized extensively

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34. This is the continuous production of ketone
bodies.

• A. Ketonuria C. Ketosis
• B. Ketonemia D. Ketoacidosis
• - Acetoacetate and ?-hydroxybutyrate are ketone
  bodies used to produce energy

36
35. Which of the following is a wax?

• A. Cholesterol C. Ergosterol
• B. Spermaceti D. Lecithin
• Taken from Physeter macrocephalus (Sperm whale).
• LECITHIN generic for yellow fatty substances
  from animal, plants and egg yolk

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36. Which of the following pairs is correct?

• Ferrous gluconate-hematinic
• Xylose-laxative
• Lactulose-Diagnostic aid
• A and C
• AOTA

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37. This is the complete reduction product of
oxygen

• A. Hydrogen peroxide C. Superoxide anions
• B. Hydroxyl radicals D. Water

39
38. What is the principal constituent of Nutgall?

• A. Gallic acid C. Resin
• B. Ellagic acid D. Tannic acid
• - Nutgall contains all, but the question asks for
  the PRINCIPAL constituent, which is TANNIC ACID.

40
39. Which of the following is photosensitizing
furocoumarin?

• A. Psoralen C. Tannic acids
• B. Cantharides D. Uva ursi

41
40. Which of the following statements is true
regarding decaffeinized coffee?

• It normally contains 0.08 of caffeine
• B. It normally contains 0.8 of caffeine
• C. It has a higher price than ordinary caffeine
• D. Both A and C
• E. Both B and C

42
41. This is a differentiating test for aldose and
ketose sugars.

• A. Barfoeds test C. Seliwanoffs test
• B. Benedicts test D. Iodine test

43
42. ?-naphthol reaction is also known as what?

• A. Molisch test C. Phenylhydrazine test
• B. Ninhydrin test D. Fehlings test
• - ?-naphthol main chemical component of molishch
  test

44
43. What type of glycosidic bond joins the diemrs
of glucose to form maltose?

• A. ?-1,4 C. ?-1,4
• B. ?-1,2 D. ?-1,2

45
44. Inherited absence of the enzyme ?-ketoacid
decarboxylase result to what disease?

• Maple syrup urine disease
• Ketonuria
• Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
• ?-thalassemia

46
45. When levels of sodium urate crystals exceeds
the limit for solubility, excess accumulates in
soft tissues and causes a reaction known as

• A. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
• B. Osteomalacia
• C. Gouty arthritis
• D. Von Gierkes disease

47
46. The state of high serum levels acetoacetic
and ?-hydroxybutyric acid is called

• A. Ketonuria C. Ketosis
• B. Ketonemia D. Ketoacidosis

48
47. This refers to aldose-ketose interconversion.

• A. Tautomerization C. Isomerism
• B. Mutarotation D. Conjugation

49
48. The Salkowski test for cholesterol utilizes
what strong acid?

• A. Sulfuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid
• B. Nitric acid D. Perchloric acid

50
49. These cells in the body lack mitochondria
thus rendering them incapable of TCA.

• A. Platelets C. Erythrocytes
• B. Neurons D. Leukocytes

51
50. Which of the following is the central hub in
the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and
amino acids?

• A. Glycolysis C. ?-oxidation
• B. PPP D. Citric acid cycle

52
51. Picrotoxin is a

• Narcotic analgesic
• Powerful anticonvulsant
• Central depressant
• Teratogenic
• - Anamirta cocculus source of picrotoxin

53
52. Which of the following has been linked to
high rates of esophageal cancer?

• Camellia sinensis
• Quercus infectoria
• Areca catechu
• Blumea balsamifera

54
53. The most common outcome of the ingestion of a
toxic plant is

• Acute dermatitis
• Hepatitis
• Nausea, vomiting diarrhea
• Pneumonia

55
54. This assay provides information about the per
cent of extractive representing the total class
of plant alkaloid

1. Proximate assay
2. Ultimate assay
3. Spectrometric assay
4. Chromatographic assay
5. Titrimetry

56
55. Vinblastine exerts its antineoplastic action
by

• A. Interfering with DNA coding and replication
• B. Preventing the conversion of folinate to
  tetrahydrofolate
• C. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
• D. Interfering with the polymerization of tubulin
  into microtubules
• E. Modulating the immune system

57
56. Which of the following enzymes is used to
bypass the PFK reaction?

• Pyruvate carboxylase
• PEP carboxylase
• Fructose bisphosphonate
• Glucose-6-phosphatase

58
57. Which of the following amino acid has an
imino group?

• A. Phenylalanine C. Tyrosine
• B. Proline D. Threonine

59
58. Thorn apple, which yields scopolamine, is
called locally as

• A. Talong
• B. Tambalisa
• C. Trompeta
• D. Talumpunay
• E. Tangan-tangan

60
59. This test specifically detects the presences
of arginine?

• A. Shciffs test C. Biuret test
• B. Sakaguchi test D. Ninhydrin test

61
60. The official test animal used to assay curare
alkaloids by the head drop cross-over method

• A. Cat C. Pigeon
• B. Dog D. Mice

62
61.Which of the following structures is/are
present in the nucleus?

• A. Nuclear membrane C. Chromatin
• B. Nucleoli D. AOTA

63
62. This is used as a chocolate substitute

• A. Guar C. Psyllium
• B. Locust bean D. AOTA
• - Ceratonia siliqua, commonly known as the carob
  tree

64
63. How many ATPs are produced from Glucose to
Fructose-6-phosphate?

• A. 0 C. 2
• B. 1 D. 3

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64. Papain is used as

• I. meat tenderizer
• II. Contact lens cleanser
• III. Relieve symptoms of episiotomy
• IV. Treatment of herniated lumbar intervertebral
  discs
• III only C. I II E. I-III
• II only D. I-IV

66
65. This enzyme is used as a spreading and
diffusing factor

• Crystallized trypsin
• Hyaluronidase for injection
• Streptokinase
• Fibrinolysin

67
66. The principal component of essential oils is

• A. Terpenes C. Lactose
• B. Aldehydes D. Esters

68
67. Which of the following sources of volatile
oils is used as an antianxiety and sleep aid?

• A. Feverfew C. Valerian
• B. Gingko D. Taxol

69
68. Which of the following is a source of phenol
glycosides?

• A. Uva-ursi C. Cantharides
• B. Coumarin D. Hamammelitannin
• - Arctostaphylos uva-ursi, BEARBERRY

70
69. A natural prostaglandin used to terminate
pregnancy from the 12th week through the 2nd
trimester

• A. Dinoprostone C. Carboprost
• B. Alprostadil D. Misoprostol
• - It is a naturally occurring PGE2, affects
  uterine contraction, bone resoprtion and can
  induce fever.

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70. Which of the following pairs is correct?

• Reserpine-hypotensive
• Sambong-stomachic
• Bayabas-diuretic
• Lagundi-analgesic

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71. Which of the following is used as a flavor to
disguise the bitterness of quinine preparations?

• Eriodictyon C. Yerba santa E. A and C
• Mastic D. A and B
• - Yerba santa mean sacred herd in Spanish

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72. What is the use of sodium starch glycolate?

• A. Disintegrating agent C. Binder
• B. Plasma expander D. Thickener

74
73. What insect produces the excrescence Nutgall?

• A. Quercus infectoria C. Cynips tinctoria
• B. Cantharis vesicatoria D. Rhus chinensis
• -Quercus infectoria is the plant.

75
74. In every cycle of the citric acid cycle, how
may ATP is produced?

• A. 20 C. 15
• B. 25 D. 10

76
75. Which statement is TRUE about prions?

1. Prions contains proteins and nucleic acids
2. BSE and Mad-Cow disease are caused by prions
3. AOTA
4. NOTA

77
76. Each end of the DNA double helix contains a
5 end at one strand and the 3 end on the other
strand. This describes what characteristic of the
DNA structure?

• Base pairing
• Complementary
• Antiparallel
• Semiconservative replication

78
77. The ribose in RNA is converted to deoxyribose
in DNA by replacing the ___ in RNA with ____.

• Hydroxyl group, hydrogen
• Hydrogen, hydroxyl group
• Oxygen, hydroxyl group
• Hydroxyl group, oxygen

79
78. The following base pair forms a minor groove.

• A. Adenine-Thymine C. Adenine-Guanine
• B. Cytosine-Guanine D. Cytosine-Thymine
• Major groove is 22Å wide
• Minor groove is 12Å wide

80
79. Which of the following is a point mutation?

• A. Insertion C. Transition
• B. Deletion D. AOTA

81
80. What is the simplest of all the amino acids?

• A. Threonine C. Glycine
• B. Tyrosine D. Histamine
• - Glycine the only amino acid with no chiral
  carbon

82
81. This is the other name for Taubers test for
ketoses.

• A. Anthrone test C. Aminoguanidine test
• B. Seliwanoffs test D. Mucic acid test

83
82. Transports exogenous lipids to liver,
adipose, cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue.

• A. Chylomicrons C. LDL
• B. VLDL D. Triglycerides

84
83. Generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate
sources

• A. Glycolysis C. Glucogenesis
• B. Gluconeogenesis D. ?-oxidation
• - Glycolysis uses carbohydrates to produce ATP
• -?-oxidation using fats to produce ATP

85
84. A high energy compound that is a product of
enolase activity on 2-phosphoglycerate

• A. CPPP C. DHP
• B. PEP D. GAP

86
85. Which amino acid is not a glucogenic amino
acid?

• A. Lysine C. Glycine
• B. Methionine D. Arginine
• - LYSINE and LEUCINE are the only non-glucogenic

87
86. Which of the following is an
oxidation-reduction process?

• A. Conversion of DHP to GAP
• B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phospahte to
  1,3-bisphophoglycerate
• C. PEP to Pyruvate
• D. Glucose to Glucose-6-phosphate

88
87. Which of the following enzymes does not
catalyse a reaction that involves a large
decrease in free energy?

• A. Aldolase C. Phosphofructokinase
• B. Hexokinase D. Pyruvate kinase

89
88. Which of the following molecule enhances the
conversion of Fructose-6-phosphate to
Fructose-1,6-bisphophate?

• A. AMP C. Citrate
• B. ATP D. ADP

90
89. What is the scientific name of corn?

• A. Zea mays C. Zhea mays
• B. Zia mayes D. Zea meys

91
90. Peppermint is

• A. Mentha piperita C. Menta longifolia
• B. Metha spicata D. Metha arvensis

92
91. Wild mint is

• A. Mentha piperita C. Menta longifolia
• B. Metha spicata D. Metha arvensis
• M. spciata spearmint
• M. longifolia horse mint

93
92. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine
base?

• A. Adenine C. Thymine
• B. Uracil D. Cytosine

94
93. Which of the following drugs need a
virus-specific thymidine kinase for its
monophosphorylation?

• A. Trifluridine C. Cidofovir
• B. Foscarnet D. Acyclovir
• -Letter A, B, and C, does not undergo
  monophosphorylation via virus specific thymidine
  kinase.

95
94. Fusion inhibitors are new class of antiviral
that blocks the entry of viruses into host cells,
which of the following drug is a synthetic
36-amino acid peptide and the first
representative of the fusion inhibitor?

• A. Lamivudine C. Docosanol
• B. Enfuvirtide D. Lopinavir
• -Only fusion inhibitor, aka as T-20

96
95. Which enzyme is responsible for cleaving
Gag-Pol polyprotein that results in the
production of mature viral particle?

• A. Kinase C. Protease
• B. Gyrase D. Transcripatase
• - MOA of PROTEASE INHIBITOR, ex Indinavir

97
96. Which of the following drugs will target
pyruvyl transferase?

• A. Fosfomycin C. Glycopeptides
• B. Penicillins D. Chloramphenicol

98
97. It is considered as the workbench of protein
synthesis inhibitors in the subcellular world

• A. Mitochondria C. DNA
• B. Ribosome D. Cell wall
• - Ribosomes, or the RNA material can trigger
  selectivity for drug products due to the
  difference in bacterial and human RNA.

99
98. Since the P site is always occupied by
peptidyl-tRNA or deacylated tRNA, this makes the
A site the primary target of which class of drugs?

• A. Tetracyclines C. Penicillins
• B. Cephalosphorins D. Chloramphenicol

100
99. DNA gyrase is an enzyme that relieves strain
as the helicase unwinds the DNA, which of the
following drugs targets the ?-subunit of the DNA
gyrase?

• A. Novobiocin C. Rifampicin
• B. Quinolones D. Nitrofurans
• - Quinolones target the ?-subunit

101
100. Study of chemical process in living organism

• A. Biology C. Chemistry
• B. Biochemistry D. Biological Metabolism