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AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW

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3. V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings. 4. Emergency Procedures ... 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes before civil twilight ... – PowerPoint PPT presentation

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Title: AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW


1
AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW
  • Charles W. Chesnut

2
Topics

1. Pilot Challenge
2. Regulations
3. V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
4. Emergency Procedures
5. Thunderstorms
6. Operations at Towered Airports
7. Airport Lighting VFR
8. Tailwheel Operations
9. Ups and Downs of Takeoffs and Landings
10. Flight Review
QUIT
3
Pilot Challenge
4
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or
magnetic north?
  • True
  • Magnetic

5
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or
magnetic north?
  • True
  • Magnetic
  • Winds aloft are forecast in true direction. Keep
    this in mind when flight planning, as you should
    figure in the wind correction angle before adding
    or subtracting the magnetic variation from the
    planned course.

6
2. What is an isobar?
  • A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a
    movement area and a non-movement area
  • A line connecting areas of equal/constant
    barometric pressure
  • A line connecting areas of equal/constant
    temperature
  • A line of magnetic variation

7
2. What is an isobar?
  • A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a
    movement area and a non-movement area
  • A line connecting areas of equal/constant
    barometric pressure
  • A line connecting areas of equal/constant
    temperature
  • A line of magnetic variation
  • An isobar is used on weather charts to connect
    areas of equal barometric pressure. They can be
    helpful in showing the intensity of the pressure
    gradient (which correlates to wind speed) and the
    general direction of the wind flow (parallel to
    the isobars).

8
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is
indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.
  • White
  • Green
  • Yellow

9
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is
indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.
  • White
  • Green
  • Yellow
  • The stall speed in landing configuration (VSO) is
    depicted on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
    of white arc.
  • The bottom of the green arc shows the stalling
    speed in the clean configuration (VS1).
  • The yellow arc denotes the caution range

10
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for
carrying passengers, is defined as
  • Sunset to sunrise
  • One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
  • 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes
    before civil twilight
  • 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before
    sunrise

11
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for
carrying passengers, is defined as
  • Sunset to sunrise
  • One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
  • 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes
    before civil twilight
  • 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before
    sunrise
  • As applicable to pilot currency for carrying
    passengers, nighttime is defined as one hour
    after sunset to one hour before sunrise, as
    stated in FAR 61.57(b)(1).

12
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your
permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the
privileges of your certificate.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120

13
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your
permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the
privileges of your certificate.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
  • According to FAR 61.60, you must notify the FAA
    within 30 days of a change in permanent mailing
    address.

14
6. What is magnetic variation?
  • The angular difference between true north and
    magnetic north
  • The corrections shown on the compass card that
    account for magnetic interference from the
    avionics and engine
  • The tendency of a heading indicator to precess
    over time

15
6. What is magnetic variation?
  • The angular difference between true north and
    magnetic north
  • The corrections shown on the compass card that
    account for magnetic interference from the
    avionics and engine
  • The tendency of a heading indicator to precess
    over time
  • Magnetic variation is the term used to describe
    the angular difference between true north and
    magnetic north, and should be used in flight
    planning to determine magnetic courses and
    headings. The corrections noted on a compass card
    refer to magnetic deviation.

16
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or
westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .
  • north, decelerating
  • north, accelerating
  • south, accelerating

17
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or
westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .
  • north, decelerating
  • north, accelerating
  • south, accelerating
  • When on an easterly or westerly heading, a
    magnetic compass will indicate a turn to the
    north when accelerating. Remember the memory
    device "ANDS" - Accelerate North, Decelerate
    South.

18
8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .
  • has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
  • is beyond its useful life and in need of
    replacement
  • is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits

19
8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .
  • has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
  • is beyond its useful life and in need of
    replacement
  • is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits
  • A fouled plug refers to a spark plug that has
    lead or carbon running engine, run the engine at
    full throttle briefly with the mixture leaned to
    burn off any contamination deposits which prevent
    it from firing properly. A common cause of
    fouling is running the engine too rich,
    especially during taxi. If the magneto check
    reveals a rough, and try the magneto check again.
    If the engine runs smoothly during the second mag
    check, the problem is resolved. If not, it's best
    to have a mechanic take a look.

20
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual
inspection?
  • Yes
  • No

21
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual
inspection?
  • Yes
  • No
  • A 100-hour inspection will not count for an
    annual inspection, but an annual inspection will
    count for a 100-hour inspection. According to FAR
    91.409(b), 100-hour checks are only required if
    the aircraft is to be used for flight training or
    carrying passengers for hire.

22
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway
one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.
  • True
  • False

23
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway
one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.
  • True
  • False
  • Unless the tower specifies you must hold short, a
    clearance to taxi to a runway means that you may
    cross other runways that intersect the taxi
    route.

24
End of quiz
25
Regulations
26
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen
Certification Branch of a change of address.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120

27
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen
Certification Branch of a change of address.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
  • Per Part 61.60, pilots have 30 days to inform the
    FAA Airmen Certification Branch of a change of
    address. If you fail to do so, you may not
    exercise the privileges of your certificate(s)
    until you provide your current address.

28
2. You must have a current medical certificate to
exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.
  • True
  • False

29
2. You must have a current medical certificate to
exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.
  • True
  • False
  • FAR 61.3(c)(2) describes several instances when
    current medical certificates are not required.
    For example, CFIs may exercise the privileges of
    their certificates without a current medical,
    provided they are not acting as PIC. Also, sport
    pilots are not required to hold a current
    medical, which is one of the attractive features
    of that certificate. However, sport pilots must
    have a valid U.S. driver's license, and may not
    have been denied (or know they have a condition
    that would prevent the issuance of) a medical
    certificate, had the most recently issued medical
    certificate revoked, or a special-issuance
    medical withdrawn.

30
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or
ground instructor certificate is valid for ____
days.
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
  • 180

31
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or
ground instructor certificate is valid for ____
days.
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
  • 180
  • A temporary certificate is valid for 120 days, as
    specified in FAR 61.17. If your temporary
    certificate is about to expire and you haven't
    received a permanent certificate, you should
    contact the local FAA flight standards district
    office (FSDO) to request an extension or to have
    the temporary certificate reissued.

32
4. Your first-class medical certificate expired
12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.
  • Renew the first-class medical certificate
  • Obtain a second-class medical certificate
  • Obtain a third-class medical certificate
  • None of the above

33
4. Your first-class medical certificate expired
12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.
  • Renew the first-class medical certificate
  • Obtain a second-class medical certificate
  • Obtain a third-class medical certificate
  • None of the above
  • You needn't do anything. A first-class medical
    certificate that expired 12 months ago is still
    valid for exercising the privileges of a private
    pilot certificate. Here's why A first-class
    medical (required for ATPs) is valid for six
    months. If a pilot chooses not to renew the
    first-class certificate during this time, it
    reverts to second-class privileges (required for
    commercial pilots) for the following six months.
    At that point, the certificate continues to
    provide third-class medical privileges (required
    for private pilots) for another 12 to 24 months,
    depending on whether the pilot was over or under
    age 40 on the date of the exam. For more
    information, see FAR 61.23 or AOPA's Medical
    Certification Center. Note For pilots under age
    40, the FAA recently proposed increasing the
    duration of first-class medical certificates
    (from six to 12 months) and third-class medical
    certificates (from 36 to 60 months).

34
5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____
hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s) of
flight time.
  • One one
  • One two
  • Two one
  • Two two

35
5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____
hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s) of
flight time.
  • One one
  • One two
  • Two one
  • Two two
  • As specified by FAR 61.56, a flight review
    consists of a minimum of one hour of ground
    training and one hour of flight training. Note
    that these are minimum times and many flight
    reviews take longer. Also, the requirements of
    FAR 61.56 can be met in ways other than a flight
    review, such as acquiring a new rating or
    certificate or completing a phase of the FAA's
    pilot proficiency award program (Wings).

36
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to
log every flight in which they served as PIC.
  • True
  • False

37
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to
log every flight in which they served as PIC.
  • True
  • False
  • According to FAR 61.51, you must log only that
    time used for training for a rating or
    certificate, or to satisfy recent experience
    requirements. You do not need to record any other
    time in your logbook, though pilots may also
    record flight time to satisfy insurance
    requirements or simply to have a record of their
    flight time and flying experiences.

38
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant
portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120

39
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant
portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
  • FAR 61.43(f)(1) specifies that you must retake
    the relevant portions of the flight test within
    60 days. After 60 days, you'll have to retake the
    entire checkride.

40
8. A complex endorsement is required to act as
PIC of an airplane that has retractable landing
gear and ____.
  • An engine of more than 200 horsepower
  • A controllable-pitch
  • Flaps
  • A and B
  • B and C

41
8. A complex endorsement is required to act as
PIC of an airplane that has retractable landing
gear and ____.
  • An engine of more than 200 horsepower
  • A controllable-pitch
  • Flaps
  • A and B
  • B and C
  • According to FAR 61.31(e), a complex aircraft has
    retractable landing gear, a controllable-pitch
    propeller, and flaps. (Seaplanes need only flaps
    and a controllable-pitch propeller to be
    considered complex.) A specific endorsement from
    an authorized flight instructor is required to
    act as PIC of complex airplanes.

42
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward
night currency if they take place ____.
  • In the absence of a full moon
  • Between sunset and sunrise
  • At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes
    before sunrise
  • At least one hour after sunset and one hour
    before sunrise

43
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward
night currency if they take place ____.
  • In the absence of a full moon
  • Between sunset and sunrise
  • At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes
    before sunrise
  • At least one hour after sunset and one hour
    before sunrise
  • FAR 61.57(b) states that, in order to act as PIC
    of an aircraft carrying passengers during the
    period beginning one hour after sunset and ending
    one hour before sunrise, you must have made at
    least three takeoffs and three landings to a full
    stop during this period within the preceding 90
    days.

44
10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more
than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the
number of passengers.
  • True
  • False

45
10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more
than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the
number of passengers.
  • True
  • False
  • The proportion of total costs you are permitted
    to share varies with the number of passengers.
    According to FAR 61.113 (c), a private pilot may
    not pay less than the pro rata share of the
    operating expenses of a flight with passengers.
    In other words, if you fly with only one other
    person, you have to pay at least half. But fly
    with two or three passengers, and you may pay as
    little as one-third or one-fourth of the costs,
    respectively, without violating the regulations

46
End of quiz
47
V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
48
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator
denotes the _____ range
  • Flap operating
  • Landing gear extended
  • Maximum airbrake
  • Normal operating

49
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator
denotes the _____ range
  • Flap operating
  • Landing gear extended
  • Maximum airbrake
  • Normal operating
  • The green arc signifies the normal operating
    range for the aircraft. The bottom of the green
    arc is Vs (stalling speed in the clean
    configuration). The top of the green arc is Vno
    (maximum structural cruising speed).

50
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies
the _____ speed range.
  • Landing gear retraction
  • Flap operating
  • Turbulence penetration
  • Normal operating

51
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies
the _____ speed range.
  • Landing gear retraction
  • Flap operating
  • Turbulence penetration
  • Normal operating
  • The white arc is the flap operating speed range.
    The top of the arc denotes Vfe, (maximum flaps
    extended speed), and the bottom of the arc
    denotes Vso, (stalling speed in the landing
    configuration). Note that some aircraft have
    additional flap speeds. For example, approach
    flaps on some aircraft can be deployed above the
    white arc. It's the responsibility of the pilot
    to know these limitations and not to rely
    exclusively on the airspeed indicator markings.

52
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator
signifies the _____ speed range.
  • Normal operating
  • Flap-deployed
  • Caution
  • Low-speed handling range

53
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator
signifies the _____ speed range.
  • Normal operating
  • Flap-deployed
  • Caution
  • Low-speed handling range
  • The yellow arc of the airspeed indicator denotes
    the caution range for the aircraft. Only operate
    at speeds in this range when you're in smooth
    air. The top of the yellow arc signifies Vne
    (never-exceed speed) and the bottom, Vno (maximum
    structural cruising speed).

54
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?
  • Red radial line
  • Blue radial line
  • Top of the green arc
  • Bottom of the white arc

55
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?
  • Red radial line
  • Blue radial line
  • Top of the green arc
  • Bottom of the white arc
  • Vne, (never-exceed speed), is denoted by the red
    radial line at the top of the caution range of
    the airspeed indicator or airspeed tape. It is
    the speed beyond which structural damage can
    result from the aerodynamic forces involved

56
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the
best angle of climb?
  • Va
  • Vx
  • Vy
  • Vfe

57
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the
best angle of climb?
  • Va
  • Vx
  • Vy
  • Vfe
  • Best angle of climb is known as Vx. This is the
    speed that will provide the most altitude in the
    shortest horizontal distance. Vx is typically
    used in short-field operations when it's
    imperative to gain altitude prior to reaching
    some point, such as an obstacle. Vy, on the other
    hand, is the best rate of climb speed it's used
    to get the most efficient gain in altitude over a
    given period of time.

58
6. What is the definition of Vs?
  • Stalling speed
  • Single-engine climb speed
  • Landing configuration stall speed
  • Subsonic safety speed

59
6. What is the definition of Vs?
  • Stalling speed
  • Single-engine climb speed
  • Landing configuration stall speed
  • Subsonic safety speed
  • Vs, located at the bottom of the green arc, is
    the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
    speed at which the airplane is controllable
    (generally in the "clean" configuration).

60
7. What is Vso?
  • Single-engine operating speed
  • Stalling speed, landing configuration
  • Stalling speed, clean configuration
  • Stalling speed, one engine inoperative

61
7. What is Vso?
  • Single-engine operating speed
  • Stalling speed, landing configuration
  • Stalling speed, clean configuration
  • Stalling speed, one engine inoperative
  • Vso, located at the bottom of the white arc, is
    the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
    Normally, this means having landing gear
    deployed, full flaps, and a power setting
    appropriate for landing.

62
8. Which of the following does not appear on the
airspeed indicator?
  • Maneuvering speed
  • Stalling speed, landing configuration
  • Best rate of climb speed
  • Never-exceed speed
  • Both A and C

63
8. Which of the following does not appear on the
airspeed indicator?
  • Maneuvering speed
  • Stalling speed, landing configuration
  • Best rate of climb speed
  • Never-exceed speed
  • Both A and C
  • Maneuvering speed and best rate of climb speed
    (Vy) do not appear on the airspeed indicator. Va
    (maneuvering speed) varies with an aircraft's
    weight, making it difficult to mark a particular
    spot on an airspeed indicator. Vy (best rate of
    climb speed) isn't specifically marked on the
    airspeed indicator because the actual speed
    changes somewhat with ambient conditions.

64
9. What procedure should you follow if you
realize your airspeed is above Vne?
  • Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level
    pitch
  • Pitch up to decrease airspeed
  • Deploy flaps to increase drag

65
9. What procedure should you follow if you
realize your airspeed is above Vne?
  • Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level
    pitch
  • Pitch up to decrease airspeed
  • Deploy flaps to increase drag
  • Above Vne, there are no guarantees that the
    airframe will not become overstressed and incur
    structural damage. Should the aircraft ever
    exceed Vne, every effort should be made to slow
    the aircraft down by reducing power and using
    very gentle control inputs to avoid damage to the
    airframe.

66
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom
of the white arc.
  • True
  • False

67
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom
of the white arc.
  • True
  • False
  • A variety of factors influence stall speeds,
    including ambient conditions, aircraft CG, pilot
    technique, and other factors. Although the bottom
    of the white arc (Vso), is the airspeed at which
    the aircraft stalled when it was tested for
    certification, many factors can cause that speed
    to vary by several knots.

68
End of quiz
69
Emergency Procedures
70
1. What should your first priority be in an
emergency?
  • Declare an emergency to ATC
  • Squawk 7700
  • Activate the ELT
  • Fly the aircraft

71
1. What should your first priority be in an
emergency?
  • Declare an emergency to ATC
  • Squawk 7700
  • Activate the ELT
  • Fly the aircraft
  • The first order of business in an emergency is to
    fly the aircraft. Remembering to "aviate,
    navigate, and communicate," in that order, will
    help keep a pilot from creating more trouble for
    him/herself during an emergency situation.

72
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an
emergency?
  • 7500
  • 7600
  • 7700
  • None of the above

73
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an
emergency?
  • 7500
  • 7600
  • 7700
  • None of the above
  • The standard emergency transponder code is 7700.
    Code 7600 is used by aircraft experiencing a
    communication failure, and 7500 is used to signal
    to ATC that an aircraft has been hijacked.

74
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during
an emergency?
  • Checklists
  • Autopilot (if installed)
  • Air Traffic Control
  • Other pilots
  • All of the above

75
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during
an emergency?
  • Checklists
  • Autopilot (if installed)
  • Air Traffic Control
  • Other pilots
  • All of the above
  • All of the above - This is the correct answer.
    All of these sources can all be helpful in an
    emergency. Checklists ensure the pilot doesn't
    miss important items, autopilots can hold the
    airplane steady while troubleshooting an
    equipment failure, ATC can offer priority vectors
    to the nearest airport, and other pilots can
    circle an aircraft, relay communications, and
    guide search and rescue to the site after a
    forced landing.

76
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence,
you should reduce airspeed to at or below ____.
  • Vno
  • Va
  • Vy
  • Vs

77
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence,
you should reduce airspeed to at or below ____.
  • Vno
  • Va
  • Vy
  • Vs
  • Va - This is the correct answer. Penetrating
    turbulence at or below Va (design maneuvering
    speed) helps assure that a gust or sudden upset
    of the aircraft will force it to stall before
    exceeding design load limits, reducing the
    possibility of over-stressing the airframe in
    rough conditions.

78
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you
should venture off and seek help.
  • True
  • False

79
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you
should venture off and seek help.
  • True
  • False
  • False -Staying close to the aircraft has several
    benefits. First, if the ELT is functioning
    properly, its signal will eventually guide search
    and rescue to its location. Also, the aircraft is
    much larger than a person, providing a more
    easily identified visual target for search and
    rescue personnel. Finally, the aircraft itself
    can provide shelter from the elements, provided
    it is not in an unsafe condition following a
    forced landing.

80
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a
single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree
turn back to the runway.
  • True
  • False

81
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a
single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree
turn back to the runway.
  • True
  • False
  • False -Two factors conspire against a pilot
    attempting a power-off 180-degree turn back to
    the runway time and descent rate. If an engine
    fails below pattern altitude (1,000 feet agl),
    there is insufficient time to make the turn back
    to the runway. First, it takes an average pilot
    5-6 seconds to react to a total engine failure.
    Then, it takes approximately 75 seconds in a
    standard-rate turn to complete a 225-degree turn
    back to the runway environment (180 degrees to
    the reciprocal heading, plus 45 degrees to point
    the nose at the center of the field). If at 1,000
    feet agl, the pilot will have a 15-second deficit
    to complete the turn, and a much greater deficit
    if attempting such a turn below pattern altitude.
    Additionally, turns rob an aircraft of energy and
    increase its descent rate. During a low-altitude
    engine failure, it is imperative to land as close
    to straight ahead as possible and not risk the
    stall/spin scenario frequently associated with a
    power-off turn back to the runway.

82
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit,
you should immediately ____.
  • Turn off as many electronic components as
    possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the
    cockpit is caused by an electrical problem.
  • Open the windows to vent the cabin
  • Declare an emergency to ATC
  • Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible

83
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit,
you should immediately ____.
  • Turn off as many electronic components as
    possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the
    cockpit is caused by an electrical problem.
  • Open the windows to vent the cabin
  • Declare an emergency to ATC
  • Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible
  • Turning off as many electronic components as
    possible can de-energize a short, allowing the
    affected component to cool and reducing the
    chance of the fire continuing. If you must keep
    some of your avionics on (as when flying in IMC
    or at night), carefully monitor the situation and
    be ready to turn off additional components if the
    smoke or fire continues.

84
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks
associated with a vacuum failure?
  • Practice partial-panel operations
  • Install a backup vacuum system
  • Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance
    guidelines Install backup flight instruments
  • All of the above

85
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks
associated with a vacuum failure?
  • Practice partial-panel operations
  • Install a backup vacuum system
  • Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance
    guidelines Install backup flight instruments
  • All of the above
  • All of these options can help mitigate the risks
    associated with a vacuum failure, especially in
    IMC. A vacuum failure is a critical emergency
    when flying "in the soup," and the large majority
    of these malfunctions result in fatal crashes.
    Pilots can increase their chances by practicing
    partial-panel operations, adhering to vacuum pump
    maintenance and replacement guidelines, and
    installing backup flight instruments. A few
    thousand dollars spent on a backup vacuum system
    or backup electric attitude indicator is a small
    price to pay for the redundancy and safety these
    items can provide.

86
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you
increase your chances of being found in the event
of an off-airport landing?
  • File a flight plan
  • Leave your cell phone number with family and
    friends
  • Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
  • All of the above

87
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you
increase your chances of being found in the event
of an off-airport landing?
  • File a flight plan
  • Leave your cell phone number with family and
    friends
  • Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
  • All of the above
  • All of these can help. Filing a flight plan is
    the first step to increasing your chances of
    being found by search and rescue. Filing one
    takes just a few minutes, and it can be opened
    and closed quickly and easily with Flight
    Service. Installing a 406 MHz ELT also increases
    your chances. These advanced ELTs are more
    reliable and powerful than the 121.5/243.0 MHz
    ELTs currently installed in most GA aircraft.
    While more expensive than older-generation ELTs,
    406 MHz units should be carefully considered by
    pilots who fly over uninhabited or rugged areas
    regularly. Finally, leaving your cell phone
    number with family and friends allows them to
    contact you in the event you don't arrive at your
    destination on time or forget to close your
    flight plan after landing.

88
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door
opens at rotation?
  • Reach across and try to latch it
  • Immediately reduce power to idle and apply
    maximum braking
  • Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
    land, and then address the problem on the ground

89
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door
opens at rotation?
  • Reach across and try to latch it
  • Immediately reduce power to idle and apply
    maximum braking
  • Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
    land, and then address the problem on the ground
  • Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
    land, and then address the problem on the ground
    -For most aircraft, making a trip in the pattern,
    landing, and then addressing the door problem is
    your best bet. Reaching across the cockpit to
    close a door during takeoff is a bad idea that
    can lead to a loss of control of the aircraft.
    Aborted takeoffs can be hazardous on short
    runways, and heavy braking can blow a tire and
    cause further problems.

90
End of quiz
91
Thunderstorms
92
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a
thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.
  • True
  • False

93
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a
thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.
  • True
  • False
  • False- Three components are necessary for a
    thunderstorm to form sufficient moisture,
    unstable air, and a lifting action. Without any
    one of these conditions, a thunderstorm will not
    develop.

94
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.
  • Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
  • Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
  • Cumulus, mature, and dissipating

95
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.
  • Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
  • Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
  • Cumulus, mature, and dissipating
  • Cumulus, mature, and dissipating -This is the
    correct answer. Intense vertical development
    builds the original cloud during the first, or
    cumulus, stage. The mature stage begins when
    precipitation falls from the cloud. Thunder and
    lightning will also occur. The cloud eventually
    becomes so saturated with moisture that it is no
    longer able to support its own weight. Eventually
    the cloud will reach an altitude at which
    vertical development will cease. At this point,
    strong upper-level winds will spread the top of
    the cloud horizontally, creating an anvil shape.
    This distinctive shape is an indication of the
    final, or dissipating, stage.

96
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.
  • True
  • False

97
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.
  • True
  • False
  • Lightning will always occur during a
    thunderstorm. The intense air circulation inside
    a thunderstorm causes an excessive amount of
    negative charge that is released in the form of
    lightning. The extreme heat generated by
    lightning causes the air to rapidly expand, which
    we hear as thunder. Pilots should also expect
    severe turbulence, strong wind gusts, icing,
    hail, and wind shear, which are also commonly
    associated with thunderstorms.

98
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can
rely on the nearest automated weather station to
report it.
  • True
  • False

99
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can
rely on the nearest automated weather station to
report it.
  • True
  • False
  • False- Significantly warmer temperatures at
    lower altitudes can melt hail before it reaches
    the ground, preventing automated weather systems
    from detecting hail at higher altitudes. Hail
    forms when super cooled water droplets inside a
    thunderstorm are drawn upward by the strong
    updrafts, freeze, and then collect more water
    particles in downdrafts before being forced
    upward again. This process, called accretion,
    will continue until the hail becomes heavy enough
    to fall out of the cloud.

100
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous
because they are _____.
  • Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
    seen
  • Often strong, severe and move quickly
  • A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages

101
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous
because they are _____.
  • Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
    seen
  • Often strong, severe and move quickly
  • A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages
  • A - Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
    seen - Embedded thunderstorms are not necessarily
    more hazardous than any other type. However, they
    are more difficult to detect because they are
    hidden among other clouds. This makes it more
    common for pilots to inadvertently fly into these
    storms, especially during instrument
    meteorological conditions (IMC). Strong, severe
    and quick moving storms are typically in a squall
    line. A cluster of thunderstorms in various
    stages of development are collectively referred
    to as a multi cell thunderstorm.

102
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening
thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned
about _____.
  • Heavy rain showers
  • Strong downdrafts
  • Frequent ground lightning

103
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening
thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned
about _____.
  • Heavy rain showers
  • Strong downdrafts
  • Frequent ground lightning
  • Strong downdrafts - Hazardous wind conditions may
    exist within several miles of a dissipating
    thunderstorm. As the cloud collapses, the
    thunderstorm weakens, producing strong
    downdrafts, gusty winds, low-level wind shear,
    and micro bursts. AIM 7-1-30 encourages pilots to
    avoid thunderstorms by at least 20 miles.

104
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____
of a thunderstorm.
  • The upwind side
  • The downwind side
  • All sides

105
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____
of a thunderstorm.
  • The upwind side
  • The downwind side
  • All sides
  • All sides - This is the correct answer. Wind
    shear can be found on all sides of a
    thunderstorm. This "shear zone" occurs when the
    cool air from strong downdrafts expands and
    collides with the surrounding air outside of the
    cloud, causing gusty winds and severe turbulence.
  • Pilots who experience weather associated with
    thunderstorms are encouraged to submit a pilot
    report (pirep) when able to provide other pilots
    with information about the actual conditions
    aloft. If the details of submitting a pirep seem
    like a distant memory, take ASF's interactive
    online course SkySpotter Pireps Made Easy to see
    how quick and easy it really is to get, use, and
    give pireps.

106
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a
thunderstorm at night.
  • True
  • False

107
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a
thunderstorm at night.
  • True
  • False
  • False is the correct answer. Although a
    thunderstorm always produces lightning, it is
    sometimes more difficult to recognize a
    thunderstorm at night or during IMC, especially
    if it's embedded. The frequency of lightning
    flashes depends on the stage and strength of a
    thunderstorm. Even if a pilot cannot see
    lightning, the storm may produce severe
    turbulence and hail that could lead to structural
    damage.
  • Getting a thorough weather briefing before
    takeoff is the first step in avoiding
    thunderstorms. During flight, contact En Route
    Flight Advisory Service (EFAS), commonly known as
    Flight Watch, on 122.0 to obtain weather
    advisories specific to your route.

108
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm,
what should you do?
  • Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get
    through the thunderstorm more quickly.
  • Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease
    airspeed and reverse course to exit the
    thunderstorm.
  • Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
    a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA).

109
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm,
what should you do?
  • Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get
    through the thunderstorm more quickly.
  • Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease
    airspeed and reverse course to exit the
    thunderstorm.
  • Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
    a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA).
  • Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
    a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA) is
    the correct answer. If you encounter a
    thunderstorm in flight, it is important to be
    more concerned about attitude than altitude.
    Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
    a cruise speed below maneuvering speed (VA) to
    avoid structural damage to the aircraft.
    Remember VA varies with weight and therefore is
    found in your POH, not on your airspeed
    indicator. If able, also contact ATC to advise
    them of the situation they may be able to
    provide further assistance.
  • Choosing to reverse your course to exit the storm
    is not advised. By keeping the wings level and
    "riding" the up and downdrafts, you will reduce
    the risk of making abrupt control inputs that
    could lead to a stall, unusual attitude, or
    damage to the aircraft.

110
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
_____.
  • Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
  • Separation between VFR aircraft
  • Separation between IFR aircraft

111
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
_____.
  • Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
  • Separation between VFR aircraft
  • Separation between IFR aircraft
  • Separation between IFR aircraft is the correct
    answer. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
    separation for aircraft operating on IFR flight
    plans. A variety of radar services are also
    provided to VFR traffic, including traffic
    advisories, but only on a workload permitting
    basis. Although ATC may offer weather advisories,
    it's not their main responsibility.
  • Check out ASF's WeatherWise Thunderstorms and
    ATC online course to learn how ATC describes
    precipitation, what weather-radar services
    controllers can offer to pilots in flight, and
    how to effectively communicate with ATC during
    flights near convective activity. Remember,
    Flight Watch (122.0) is a great source of weather
    advisories while enroute. .

112
End of quiz
113
Operations at Towered Airports
114
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are
depicted in _____.
  • Magenta
  • Blue
  • Black

115
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are
depicted in _____.
  • Magenta
  • Blue
  • Black
  • On sectional charts, airports with a control
    tower are depicted in blue. Magenta depicts non
    towered airports. Black icons are used to depict
    visual landmarks, not airports.

116
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions
to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway). The
most direct route would cause you to cross Runway
26. May you cross Runway 26 (the intersecting
runway)?
  • Yes
  • No

117
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions
to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway). The
most direct route would cause you to cross Runway
26. May you cross Runway 26 (the intersecting
runway)?
  • Yes
  • No
  • When you are instructed to "taxi to" a runway and
    no instructions are given to hold short of any
    other runways, AIM 4-3-18 states that all runways
    intersecting the taxi route may be crossed.
    However, if you have any doubt about whether you
    have permission to cross a runway, do not
    hesitate to ask ATC. Pilots are not permitted to
    cross, or taxi onto, the runway they were cleared
    to (i.e., in this example a pilot could not taxi
    onto Runway 35L) without further instructions.

118
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the
safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.
  • Below and behind
  • Above and behind
  • At the same altitude as

119
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the
safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.
  • Below and behind
  • Above and behind
  • At the same altitude as
  • Because wake turbulence tends to sink, you want
    to avoid the area below and behind larger
    aircraft. When landing behind a larger plane, fly
    above its approach path and land past its
    touchdown point. When taking off behind a larger
    aircraft, take off before its rotation point and
    climb out above its flight path (if possible).
  • ATC can - and will - provide runway separation on
    takeoff by delaying the takeoff of small aircraft
    when departing behind heavy (maximum takeoff
    weight of more than 255,000 pounds), large
    (maximum takeoff weight between 41,000 pounds and
    255,000 pounds), and Boeing 757 aircraft. In some
    cases, the pilot of the small aircraft can waive
    this delay however, the ASF suggests that you
    play it safe and wait for the required interval.
  • AIM Chapter 7, Section 3 contains more
    information regarding wake turbulence.

120
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after
takeoff, you're expected to _____.
  • Track the extended centerline of the takeoff
    runway
  • Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift

121
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after
takeoff, you're expected to _____.
  • Track the extended centerline of the takeoff
    runway
  • Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift
  • When cleared to "fly (or maintain) runway
    heading," pilots are expected to maintain the
    runway heading, regardless of the amount of wind
    drift encountered. Since every aircraft is
    experiencing the same amount of wind, ATC can
    predict the ground tracks when everyone is
    holding the same heading as opposed to pilots
    applying varying degrees of wind correction to
    track a centerline they can no longer see. To be
    technically correct, maintain the actual magnetic
    heading of the runway, not the painted runway
    number (e.g., if Runway 4's actual magnetic
    heading is 044, make an effort to maintain 044 as
    opposed to 040).

122
5. When you're approaching the airport to land,
tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to
do?
  • Choose the runway best suited for landing from
    your current position
  • Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop
    landing
  • Perform a low approach or missed approach
  • All of the above (A, B, and C)
  • B and C only

123
5. When you're approaching the airport to land,
tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to
do?
  • Choose the runway best suited for landing from
    your current position
  • Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop
    landing
  • Perform a low approach or missed approach
  • All of the above (A, B, and C)
  • B and C only
  • The Pilot/Controller Glossary defines "Cleared
    for the option" as "ATC authorization for an
    aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach,
    missed approach, stop-and go, or full-stop
    landing at the discretion of the pilot." Also
    known as an option approach, this clearance
    allows instructors to evaluate a student's
    performance under changing situations. If this
    clearance is desired, a request should be made
    when entering downwind for a VFR traffic pattern,
    or when passing the final approach fix inbound on
    an instrument approach. More information can be
    found in AIM 4-3-22

124
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO)
clearance, you should _____.
  • Remain on the runway after landing, holding at
    the designated hold-short point
  • Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway
    prior to reaching the hold short point
  • Cross the designated hold short point only after
    visually clearing the area

125
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO)
clearance, you should _____.
  • Remain on the runway after landing, holding at
    the designated hold-short point
  • Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway
    prior to reaching the hold short point
  • Cross the designated hold short point only after
    visually clearing the area
  • According to AIM 4-3-11, pilots who accept a
    LAHSO clearance should land and exit the runway
    via the first convenient taxiway prior to
    reaching the hold short point. If there are no
    convenient turnoffs, then simply stop prior to
    reaching the hold short point to avoid a traffic
    conflict. The pilot-in- command has the final
    authority to accept or decline any LAHSO
    clearance in fact, pilots are expected to
    decline a LAHSO clearance if accepting the
    clearance will compromise safety. When accepting
    a LAHSO clearance, full read back of your
    clearance is required (i.e., "Piper Three-
    Five-Seven-Three Mike, cleared to land runway
    one-zero, hold short of runway two-three"). If
    you decide to decline a LAHSO clearance, you
    should notify ATC immediately by stating
    "unable." Student pilots may not accept a LAHSO
    clearance, and LAHSO operations will only be
    conducted with a minimum of basic VFR weather
    conditions.
  • The Air Safety Foundation recommends that you
    keep the landing distances you calculated during
    preflight handy so that if offered a LAHSO
    clearance, you'll know whether or not you can
    land safely.

126
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is
closed, you should _____.
  • Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control
    Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a clearance to
    land
  • Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom
    frequency for that airport
  • Self-Announce your intentions on the common
    traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
  • Treat the airport as a closed facility and find
    an alternate place to land

127
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is
closed, you should _____.
  • Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control
    Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a clearance to
    land
  • Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom
    frequency for that airport
  • Self-Announce your intentions on the common
    traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
  • Treat the airport as a closed facility and find
    an alternate place to land
  • When the control tower is not in operation, you
    should communicate your intentions by
    self-announcing on the common traffic advisory
    frequency (CTAF). The CTAF will commonly be the
    tower frequency, but verify by looking in the
    A/FD or on the sectional chart. Even though there
    is a control tower on the field, the airport
    operates as a non towered airport when the tower
    is closed. On sectional charts, part-time towers
    are marked with a star symbol next to the control
    tower frequency, with the times of tower
    operation listed in the control tower frequencies
    table found on the front flap of the chart (and
    in the A/FD).

128
8. For traffic management purposes, which of the
following techniques may air traffic controllers
request you to perform?
  • Fly a faster (or slower) final approach speed
  • Extend the downwind leg until ATC approves a turn
    to base leg
  • Switch to another runway
  • Perform a 360-degree turn to allow preceding
    traffic to clear
  • All of the above
  • In order to keep the flow of traffic as smooth as
    possible, controllers may issue a variety of
    instructions, some of which are not as common as
    others. These include fly a faster or slower
    approach speed, extend the downwind leg, switch
    to another runway, perform a 360-degree turn,
    make S-turns on final, and any other maneuver
    they may deem appropriate for the circumstances.
    If ATC asks you to fly a slower approach speed,
    don't fly too close to your aircraft's stall
    speed. It's much better to tell ATC "unable" than
    to stall on final.
  • Unless immediate action is required to avoid a
    collision, do not perform any of these maneuvers
    without telling ATC. Their management of traffic
    flow is based on what they're expecting you to
    do, and performing an unexpected maneuver could
    put you at odds with another aircraft.

129
9. Except in the case of an emergency, you must
receive an ATC clearance to land at a towered
airport when the tower is in operation.
  • True
  • False
  • In order to land at a towered airport, you must
    first receive a clearance from ATC, as required
    by FAR 91.129(i). When cleared to land, you must
    land on the runway specified by ATC. If you've
    been cleared for just a low approach or missed
    approach, you may not touch down on the runway.
  • Remember As pilot in command, you have the final
    authority to accept or reject an ATC clearance.
    If you are not comfortable landing on the
    assigned runway, or want to use another runway
    for training purposes, ask for another runway.

130
10. When unsure about your current location or
taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.
  • Progressive taxi instructions
  • Proprietary taxi instructions
  • Sequential taxi instructions
  • An airport diagram

131
10. When unsure about your current location or
taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.
  • Progressive taxi instructions
  • Proprietary taxi instructions
  • Sequential taxi instructions
  • An airport diagram
  • If you are unfamiliar with the airport, or if for
    any reason confusion exists as to the correct
    taxi routing, ask ATC for progressive taxi
    instructions, which include step-by-step
    directions as you taxi for takeoff or to the ramp
    for parking. Progressive instructions may also be
    issued if the controller deems it necessary due
    to traffic or field conditions, such as
    construction or closed taxiways. If at any time
    you become disoriented at a towered airport, stop
    and ask ATC for assistance (even if you can't
    remember the exact term "progressive taxi").
  • Pilots should have an airport diagram ready
    before they start taxiing. If you don't have a
    fancy multi-function display (MFD) that follows
    your every turn, you can download and print free
    ASF airport diagrams.

132
End of quiz
133
Airport Lighting VFR
134
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.
  • Blue
  • Green
  • White
  • Red

135
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.
  • Blue
  • Green
  • White
  • Red
  • Taxiway edge lights are blue in color. They are
    used to outline the edges of taxiways at night or
    in reduced visibility conditions. Taxiway
    centerline lights are green in color, while
    runway edge lights are white.

136
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two
pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.
  • Clearance Bar
  • Runway Guard
  • Stop Bar

137
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two
pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.
  • Clearance Bar
  • Runway Guard
  • Stop Bar
  • Runway guard lights are found only at
    runway/taxiway intersections, and consist of
    either elevated flashing lights on both sides of
    the taxiway, or of a row of flashing yellow
    in-pavement lights. Some pilots refer to these as
    "wig-wag" lights. Clearance bar lights, which are
    steady-burning, yellow, in-pavement lights, are
    used on taxiway holding positions to make those
    positions more visible. Stop bar lights are a row
    of red, unidirectional, steady-burning
    in-pavement lights installed across the entire
    taxiway at the runway holding position. Following
    an ATC clearance to proceed, ATC turns the stop
    bar lights off and the taxiway centerline lead-on
    lights are then turned on.

138
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are
listed on sectional charts.
  • True
  • False

139
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are
listed on sectional charts.
  • True
  • False
  • Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are not
    listed on sectional charts. While the CTAF is
    commonly used for pilot-controlled lighting, this
    is not always the case. The proper frequency is
    provided in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
    and on standard instrument approach procedure
    charts.

140
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying
the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds activates
____ intensity lighting.
  • Low
  • Medium
  • High

141
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying
the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds activates
____ intensity lighting.
  • Low
  • Medium
  • High
  • According to AIM section 2-1-7, keying the mic 7
    times in 5 seconds activates the high-intensity
    setting. Regardless of the intensity level the
    pilot desires, pilot-controlled lighting systems
    require the number of desired keys (3, 5, or 7)
    to be completed within 5 seconds.

142
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach
Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.
  • True
  • False

143
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach
Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.
  • True
  • False
  • The visual glide path provided by the VASI will
    provide safe obstacle clearance within /- 10
    degrees of the extended runway centerline
    (laterally) and out to 4 nautical miles from the
    runway threshold. VASI visual glide paths are
    normally set at 3 degrees. While this is the
    typical glide path, some locations may need to be
    as high as 4.5 degrees to ensure obstacle
    clearance.

144
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope
Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.
  • On the lower glide path
  • On the upper glide path
  • Above both glide paths

145
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope
Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.
  • On the lower glide path
  • On the upper glide path
  • Above both glide paths
  • Two red bars above one white bar indicate that
    you are on the lower glide path. Three-bar VASI
    systems provide two visual glide paths, an upper
    and a lower. The upper glide path is provided by
    the middle and far bar, while the near and middle
    bar are for the lower glide path. The higher
    glide path is intended for use by high-cockpit
    aircraft to provide sufficient threshold crossing
    height. Most general aviation pilots should use
    the 3-degree lower glide path.

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7. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
lights are typically visible about 5 miles from
the airport during
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