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Haematology revision

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Title: Haematology revision


1
Haematology revision
  • Shin Ying Lee

2
2010
  • You are on cover for a surgical ward when you are
    called to Mrs McCulloch, who has just commenced a
    blood transfusion for a low post operative
    haemoglobin. Three minutes after the start of the
    transfusion the patient develops lumbar pains,
    rigors, dyspnoea and hypotension.

3
2010
  • You are on cover for a surgical ward when you are
    called to Mrs McCulloch, who has just commenced a
    blood transfusion for a low post operative
    haemoglobin. Three minutes after the start of the
    transfusion the patient develops lumbar pains,
    rigors, dyspnoea and hypotension.

4
  • What is the name of this complication of the
    transfusion. 1
  • Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

5
  • What is the most likely procedural reason for
    this complication to have arisen? 1
  • ABO incompatibility. Failure to check
    identity of patient when taking sample for
    compatibility testing, failure to perform paper
    identity checks before blood is transfused.

6
  • List 3 treatments that the patient might then
    urgently require. 3
  • High flow oxygen
  • IV fluids
  • Diuretics

7
  • Name 2 further steps that would need to be taken
    rapidly. 1
  • 1. Send donor blood back to blood bank with
    notification of event
  • 2. Inform hospital transfusion department
    immediately

8
  • What might you detect in the urine? 1
  • Hemoglobin

9
  • List three further short term complications of
    blood transfusions. 3
  • 1. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
  • 2. Allergic and anaphylactic reaction
  • 3. TRALI (Transfusion related acute lung
    injury)

10
2007
  • A 40 year old woman presents with recent
    tiredness and lethargy. She has pale conjunctivae
    and you think there may be some yellowing of the
    sclera.

11
2007
  • A 40 year old woman presents with recent
    tiredness and lethargy. She has pale conjunctivae
    and you think there may be some yellowing of the
    sclera.

12
  • Name two investigations you would perform and
    what are you likely to see? 2
  • 1. Bloods FBC, LFT. high reticulocytes
    count, High bilirubin levelsgt50
  • 2. Peripheral blood film- spherocytes,
    elliptocytes
  • 2. Urine sample Urobilinogen in the urine

13
  • What two abnormalities might you expect to see on
    biochemistry and haematology in haemolytic
    anaemia? 2
  • Biochem- High bilirubin levels, high LDH
  • Haemato- Low hemoglobin, increase
    reticulocytes count

14
  • She has a splenectomy. What two things would you
    want to vaccinate against? 2
  • Pneumococcal vaccine
  • Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine

15
  • What two pieces of advice would you want to give
    her in regards to her asplenism?2
  • 1) Lifelong prophylactic antibiotics
  • 2) Reimmunisation every 5 years, annual
    influenza vaccine
  • 3) Increased risk of malaria falciparum,
    anti-malarial precautions

16
  • Name two causes of haemolytic anaemia. 2
  • 1) Abnormal membrane (Hereditary
    spherocytosis, elliptocytosis)
  • 2) Abnormal enzymes (G6PD deficiency)
  • 3) Abnormal hemoglobin synthesis
    (thalassemia, hemoglobinopathies, sickle cell
    disease)

17
Leukaemia
  • 4 types
  • Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • Acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL)
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

18
Investigations
  • Blood count, White count differentials, red
    cells, haemoglobin, plaletets
  • Peripheral blood film
  • Bone marrow biopsy and aspiration
  • Immunophenotyping and molecular methods
  • Cytogenetic analysis

19
CML
  • Anaemia, bruising, unwell
  • Dragging sensation at the abdomen/ abdomen
    fullness (splenomegaly)
  • Translocation of 9 22. Philadelphia chromosome
    gt80 cases
  • Chimeric gene (BCR/ABL) gt phosphoprotein (p190
    and p210) with high tyrosine kinase activity
    seen.
  • spectrum of myeloid lineage cells

20
CML(peripheral blood film)
21
  • Three phrases
  • - Chronic phase
  • - Accelerated phase
  • - Blast crisis

22
Treatment
  • Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)
    Glivec/Gleevec
  • Allogenic transplantation

23
CLL
  • Swollen glands
  • Constitutional signs and symptoms Fever, night
    sweats, weight loss
  • Mature lymphocytes
  • Transformed to Diffuse Large B cell lymphoma
  • Richters transformation
  • Chemotherapy
  • Stem cell transplant

24
CLL (peripheral blood film)
25
AML
  • Neoplastic proliferation of blast cells derived
    from myeloid elements.
  • Bone marrow aspiration auer rods, myeloid
    precursors

26
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27
AML
Clinical Good prognostic factors Bad prognostic factors
Age lt 50 years gt 60 years
WBC count lt25,000/mm3 gt25,000/mm3
FAB type M3,M4eo Mo
Auer rods present absent
Fibrosis absent absent
28
ALL
29
ALL
  • Affects children more commonly
  • Bleeding gums, recurrent infections, tiredness
  • Hepato-splenomegaly
  • Bone marrow aspiration lymphoblast with PAS
    positive

30
Treatment
  • Chemotherapy
  • Remission induction Vincristine, prednisolone,
    L-asparaginase, daunorubicin
  • Consolidation
  • CNS prophylaxis Intrathecal methotrexate/- CNS
    irradiation
  • Maintenance
  • Bone marrow transplant

31
Prognostic factors
Clinical Good prognostic factors Bad prognostic factors
age 4 to 10 years gt 10 years, or lt2 years
WBC count lt50,000 mm3 gt50,000 mm3
Immunophenotype B-precursor ALL Mature B or T cell
sex girls boys
Chromosomal number hyperdiploidy hypodiploidy
32
Lymphoma
  • Two types
  • Hodgkins and Non Hodgkins
  • Malignancy of the lymph nodes
  • Diagnosis confirmation lymph node biopsy
  • Bloods plus LDH, uric acid
  • CXR bihilar lymphadenopathy
  • Staging CT scan chest, abdo-pelvisBMA
  • B symptoms fever, weight loss, night sweats,
    lethargy

33
Types
  • Nodular sclerosis (good prognosis)
  • Mixed cellularity
  • Lymphocyte rich
  • Lymphocyte depleted (poor)

34
Reed Sternberg Cell
  • Nucleus is enclosed with an abundant amphophilic
    cytoplasm, and contains large, inclusion-like,
    owl eyed nucleoli, surrounded by a clear halo.
  • Hodgkins Lymphoma

35
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36
Ann Arbor staging
  • Stage I - a single lymph node area or single
    extranodal site
  • Stage II - 2 or more lymph node areas on the same
    side of the diaphragm
  • Stage III - denotes lymph node areas on both
    sides of the diaphragm
  • Stage IV - disseminated or multiple involvement
    of the extranodal organs

37
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38
Non Hodgkins Treatment
  • Depending on subtype
  • Low grade if symptomless none, localized
    radiotherapy, diffuse (Chlorambucil)
  • High grade (DLBCL) CHOP
  • Cychophosphamide
  • Hydroxydaunorubicin
  • Oncovin (vincristine)
  • Prednisolone
  • /- Rituximab

39
Myeloma
  • Malignant clonal proliferation of B-lymphocyte
    derived plasma cells
  • Osteolytic bone lesions unexplained backache,
    pathological fractures
  • Anaemic, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
  • Renal impairment

40
Investigations
  • Bloods Blood count, Hypercalcemia- increase
    osteoclastic activity
  • Serum and urine electrophoresis
  • Urine sample- Bence Jones protein K, Lambda
    light chains
  • B2 microglobulin prognostic test
  • Skeletal survey- Lytic punched out lesion

41
Diagnostic criteria
  • Monoclonal protein band in serum or urine
    electrophoresis
  • Increased plasma cells found on BMB
  • Evidence of end organ damage from myeloma
  • - Hypercalcemia
  • - Renal insufficiency
  • - Anaemia
  • - Bone lesions

42
Treatment
  • Supportive
  • Chemotherapy

43
Complications of myeloma
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Spinal cord compression
  • Hyperviscosity
  • Acute renal failure

44
4 causes of massive splenomegaly
  • CML
  • Malaria
  • Myelofibrosis
  • Thalassemia

45
EMQ questions
  • A 27-year-old man presents with a two-month
    history of pruritis, fatigue and weight loss. On
    questioning he admits that whenever he drinks
    alcohol, he experiences bone pain. On examination
    he has a rubbery non-tender submandibular lymph
    node. He has never had infectious mononucleosis.

46
EMQ questions
  • A 27-year-old man presents with a two-month
    history of pruritis, fatigue and weight loss. On
    questioning he admits that whenever he drinks
    alcohol, he experiences bone pain. On examination
    he has a rubbery non-tender submandibular lymph
    node. He has never had infectious mononucleosis.
  • Hodgkins lymphoma

47
EMQ questions
  • A 68-year-old woman presents with a history of
    bruising, bone pain and lymphadenopathy.
    Unbeknownst to the consultant, this patient has a
    (t9,22) mutation known as the Philadelphia
    Chromosome. On examination the consultant finds a
    massively enlarged spleen.

48
EMQ questions
  • A 68-year-old woman presents with a history of
    bruising, bone pain and lymphadenopathy.
    Unbeknownst to the consultant, this patient has a
    (t9,22) mutation known as the Philadelphia
    Chromosome. On examination the consultant finds a
    massively enlarged spleen.
  • Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

49
EMQ questions
  • A 12-year-old girl of Nigerian descent and with a
    known blood disorder presents to AE with a
    two-day history of dyspnoea, cough and fever. You
    order several investigations and note that she
    has a Hb of 6g/dl (reference range 11.5 1.35
    g/dl) and a chest X-ray showing pulmonary
    infiltrates.

50
EMQ questions
  • A 12-year-old girl of Nigerian descent and with a
    known blood disorder presents to AE with a
    two-day history of dyspnoea, cough and fever. You
    order several investigations and note that she
    has a Hb of 6g/dl (reference range 11.5 1.35
    g/dl) and a chest X-ray showing pulmonary
    infiltrates.
  • Sickle cell anaemia

51
EMQ questions
  • A 65-year-old lady presents to her GP with a
    3-month history of vertigo, tinnitus and visual
    disturbance. She admits to feeling a bit down
    and the GP decides to carry out some routine
    bloods. A week later she returns and you note
    that her blood results show a raised high
    haemoglobin and a raised pack cell volume and red
    blood cell count.

52
EMQ questions
  • A 65-year-old lady presents to her GP with a
    3-month history of vertigo, tinnitus and visual
    disturbance. She admits to feeling a bit down
    and the GP decides to carry out some routine
    bloods. A week later she returns and you note
    that her blood results show a raised high
    haemoglobin and a raised pack cell volume and red
    blood cell count.
  • Polycythaemia vera

53
EMQ questions
  • A 37 year old lady with known hypothyroidism
    presents to you with fatigue, dyspnoea and
    palpitations. You note that she is pale and
    tachycardic. Routine bloods show a macrocytic
    anaemia. You suspect that this is caused by her
    hypothyroidism. You find a positive Schillings
    test.

54
EMQ questions
  • A 37 year old lady with known hypothyroidism
    presents to you with fatigue, dyspnoea and
    palpitations. You note that she is pale and
    tachycardic. Routine bloods show a macrocytic
    anaemia. You suspect that this is caused by her
    hypothyroidism. You find a positive Schillings
    test.
  • Pernicious anaemia

55
  • Thank you
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