Grade 11

1
Grade 11 Objective 2
2
1 The diagram shows the flow of energy
converted during photosynthesis. From this
diagram it can also be inferred that A
atmospheric gases are the source of
energy for producers B organisms depend on
organic compounds to transfer energy C
ultraviolet radiation from the sun is
used for photosynthesis D heat from plants
and animals warms atmospheric gases
3
2 When a sea urchin egg is removed from
the ocean and placed in freshwater, the egg
swells and bursts. Which of these causes water
to enter the egg? F Coagulation G Sodium
pump H Active transport J Osmosis
4
3 Why are photosynthesis and cellular
respiration often considered opposites? F
Photosynthesis produces twice as many ATP
molecules as cellular respiration does. G
Water is released during photosynthesis and
consumed during cellular
respiration. H Photosynthesis occurs during
the day, and cellular respiration occurs
at night. J Oxygen is produced during
photosynthesis and used during cellular
respiration.
5
4 Which molecule provides most of the
energy used to drive chemical reactions in
cells? F DNA G RNA H ATP J ADP
6
Kidneys and Dialysis 5 The box
contains some facts about kidneys and dialysis.
Which of the following best explains why
dialysis works? F Dialysis reduces the size
of proteins. G Proteins are dissolved by
urine. H Dialysis filters proteins from
solution. J Proteins transport membrane
fragments.
Proteins and other large molecules cannot move through the membranes of healthy kidneys. The presence of large molecules in urine is an indication of unhealthy kidneys. Dialysis is a medical treatment that does the work for failing kidneys. In dialysis, an artificial membrane impermeable to large molecules is used. Dialysis lowers protein levels in urine.
7
6 Cholera-causing bacteria have a single
flagellum that allows these bacteria to A
move B reproduce C excrete water D
produce sugar
8
7 Which of these best explains why a
freshwater aquarium would be a dangerous
habitat for saltwater fish? A The tissues of
the saltwater fish would absorb too much
acid. B The organs of the saltwater fish would
produce too much protein. C The organ
systems of the saltwater fish would consume too
much energy. D The cells of the saltwater
fish would gain too much water.
9
8 The swordfish has a heat-generating organ
that warms its brain and eyes up to 14C above
the surrounding water temperature. What
structures are likely to be found in relatively
high concentrations in the cells of this
organ? A Chromosomes B Mitochondria C
Nuclei D Ribosomes
10
9 The diagram shows cell division
in which an error has occurred. Which of these
statements is most accurate? A Cell A lacks
the cytoplasm necessary to continue normal cell
functions. B Cell B contains enough genetic
material for the cell to reproduce
itself. C Cell A is free of any mutation
present in the genetic material of the parent
cell. D Cell B lacks instructions for making
the proteins necessary for cell metabolism.
11
10 What process is shown
above? A Cellular ingestion B Pseudopod
formation C Cell wall digestion D Binary
fission
12
11 Which of these is a characteristic of body
cells that require large amounts of
energy? A They have a large number of
mitochondria. B They have a supplementary Y
chromosome. C They have a two-layer
membrane. D They have a storage area for
albumin proteins.
13
12 Saltwater fish remove extra salt from their
body by active transport through the gills.
What is the result of this activity? A The
salt becomes more chemically active. B Water
balance is maintained in the blood. C The rate
of energy production is decreased. D The cell
membrane becomes less permeable to water.
14
13 The Greek scholar Aristotle studied plants.
He believed that plants obtain everything they
need from the soil. Current understanding does
not support this belief. Which of the following
would least likely be absorbed from the
soil? F Minerals G H2O H Nitrates J
CO2
15
14 The picture shows a cell
model and the solutions associated with it. In
this situation the cell model will A gain
mass B shrink C increase in solute
content D start to vibrate
16
15 Working muscle cells that are deprived of
oxygen produce A alcohol B lactic
acid C citric acid D acetone
17
16 In DNA, which of the following determines
the traits of an organism? F Amount of
adenine G Number of sugars H Sequence
of nitrogen bases J Strength of hydrogen
bonds
18
Avery and Associates Investigation with
Pneumococcus 17 Which of the
following best describes the question this set of
procedures was designed to answer? A Can a
substance from dead bacteria transform living
bacteria? B Can R bacterial cells survive
heating? C Can dead bacterial cells confer
immunity to a living host? D Can bacterial
cells be isolated from a healthy host?
19
18 Coat color in mice varies greatly,
ranging from black to grizzly gray,
black-and-white, spotted, or white. The nucleus
from a body cell of a grizzly-gray mouse is
fused with an egg from a black mouse from which
the nucleus has been removed. The egg begins to
divide and is then transplanted into a female
white mouse. What will be the most likely coat
color of the offspring? F Black G Black
with white spots H Grizzly gray J White
20
19 All of the following are found in a DNA
molecule except A carbon dioxide B
deoxyribose C nitrogen D phosphate
21
20 Which molecule is most responsible for
determining an organisms eye color, body
structure, and cellular enzyme production? A
Complex starch B Fatty acid C
Carbohydrate D Deoxyribonucleic acid
22
21 In all plant and animal cells, the nucleus
contains long molecules of DNA. Which of the
following best describes the function of
DNA? F DNA provides the shape and structure
of the nucleus. G DNA packages materials for
transport through the nucleus. H DNA carries
materials into and out of the nucleus. J DNA
contains the blueprint for producing the whole
organism.
23
22 Erwin Chargaff studied the DNA of organisms
within a single species. Chargaff discovered
that the amount of adenine is about equal to
the amount of thymine. Which of these explains
why the ratio of adenine to thymine is nearly
11? A Adenine and thymine pair with each
other. B Adenine binds with phosphates, while
thymine binds with nitrates. C Adenine and
thymine are identical in chemical
composition. D Adenine bases contain a form of
thymine.
24
23 Proteins are produced according to a
special code found in the control center of the
cell. Which of these molecules carries this
code? A DNA B ATP C Glucose D
Lipid
25
Sex-Linked Inheritance 24 What
do the results of this investigation
indicate? F This trait is determined by the Y
chromosome. G Red-eyed flies always produce
red-eyed offspring. H White-eyed flies have
many phenotypes for eye color. J This trait is
carried only on the X chromosome.
26
25 Thymineguaninethyminecytosine
describes F nucleotides within an RNA
strand G a sequence of bases within a DNA
section H points of DNA separation during
protein synthesis J tRNA codons for specific
amino acids
27
26 Which cellular function
does this model represent? A Respiration B
Protein synthesis C DNA replication D
Photosynthesis
28
27 If the template of a strand of DNA is
5' AGATGCATC 3', the complementary strand will
be F 3' TCTACGTAG 5' G 5' CTACGTAGA
3' H 3' AGATGCATC 5' J 5' AGACGTCTA 3'
29
28 If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of
its body cells, how many chromosomes will be in
each daughter cell after mitosis? F 11 G
19 H 38 J 76
30
29 Which of these represents the DNA
segment from which this section of mRNA was
transcribed? A ACTAAG B TCUTTG C
GAAUCU D UCCTGA
31
30 DNA passes information to RNA during
the process of F transcription G
active transport H regeneration J
osmosis
32
31 Part of a DNA strand is
represented in the diagram above. In order for
DNA to replicate, the strand must separate at
which of the following locations? F Between
every phosphate-sugar pair G Between the eight
sugar-base pairs H Between the four
nitrogenous base pairs J Between any two
chemical bonds
33
32 The diagram above shows how
an mRNA molecule is synthesized. What would be
the most likely result if a bacterial infection
stopped the production of the RNA
polymerase? F A protein could not be
manufactured. G A lysosome would digest the
cell. H Osmosis would not occur in the
cell. J Dehydration could be prevented in the
cytoplasm.
34
33 Which of the following must occur before
DNA replication can take place? A
Translation of DNA into amino acids B
Separation of the DNA molecule into codons C
Transformation of DNA into RNA D Separation
of the DNA double helix
35
3'CGGUAU5' 34 This is a short section
of mRNA. Which DNA code probably produced this
section of mRNA? A 3' GCCTUT 5' B 5'
GCCAUT 3' C 3' ATTGCC 5' D 5' GCCATA 3'
36
35 Mutations in DNA molecules can occur
when F replication of DNA is exact G a
DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon H RNA
codons are replaced by DNA nucleotides J a
change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases
37
36 The assembly of a messenger RNA
strand that normally begins with UAC has been
changed so that the newly assembled messenger RNA
strand begins with UAG. Which of the following
will most likely occur? A The protein will
be missing the first amino acid. B The amino
acids that make up the protein will all be
different. C The mRNA will become attached to
a ribosome. D The production of the protein
will be stopped.
Codon Chart Codon Chart Codon Chart Codon Chart Codon Chart Codon Chart
First Letter Second Letter Second Letter Second Letter Second Letter Third Letter
First Letter U C A G Third Letter
U Phenylalanine Serine Tyrosine Cysteine U
U Phenylalanine Serine Tyrosine Cysteine C
U Leucine Serine Stop Stop A
U Leucine Serine Stop Tryptophan G
38
37 Which of these best explains how mutation
can be beneficial to an organism? A
Phenotypic change may create an advantage over
other organisms. B Recombined genetic
material improves genotype stability. C
Mitosis becomes a favored means of
reproduction. D Deoxyribose sugars develop
into additional nucleotides.
39
38 Sickle-cell anemia is a disorder resulting
from a mutation that leads to the production of
an abnormal protein. Which component of the DNA
molecule provides instructions for the production
of the protein? A The phosphate groups B
The sugar molecules C The sequence of
nitrogen bases D The bonds that hold the
sugars to the bases
40
BRCA1 Gene 39 Which of the following
is best supported by the information above? A
Mutations located on chromosome 17 will result
in cancer. B Cancerous growth will cause a
mutation in some BRCA1 alleles. C Mutated
BRCA1 alleles are only one factor involved in
cancer. D Women with a mutant allele of BRCA1
will develop cancer.
The BRCA1 gene is located on chromosome 17. A
healthy BRCA1 gene suppresses tumor growth.
Some women inherit a mutant BRCA1 allele from one
parent and have an increased chance of developing
cancer.
41
40 A change within a single base pair in DNA
is least likely to be observable if the change
affects A the production of a stop
codon B an unexpressed recessive trait C
actions of a codominant allele D the
expression of a sex-linked trait
42
41 The diagram above shows
chromosomes in a cell undergoing cell division.
If one of the chromosomes breaks during this
process, which of the following will most
likely happen? A Mutation B Selection C
Duplication D Segregation
43
42 Which of the following is a change that
could be passed on to an organisms
offspring? F Damage to the DNA of gamete
cells G Damage to skin cells from exposure to
sunlight H Damage to DNA in the cytoplasm of
cheek cells J Damage to hair pigment cells
with permanent dyes
44
43 If one nucleotide is
omitted or accidentally repeated in the process
of DNA duplication, which of the following is
most likely to occur? F Gene deletion G
Gene mutation H Gene insertion J Gene
segregation
45
44 A deletion of a DNA base from a gene
affects an organism by F causing future
gametes to have additional chromosomes G
changing the sequence of amino acids in a
protein H causing chromosome fragments to form
long chains J changing the structure of ribose
sugar in nucleic acids
46
45 The table above lists several
birds commonly found in Texas. Which two are the
most closely related? A Northern mockingbird
and bald eagle B Green-winged teal and
mallard C Bald eagle and white-tailed hawk D
White-tailed hawk and northern mockingbird
Common Name Scientific Name
Northern mockingbird Mimus polyglottos
Green-winged teal Anas crecca
Bald eagle Haliaeetus leucocephalus
White-tailed hawk Buteo albicaudatus
Mallard Anas platyrhynchos
47
46 The bullfrog, Rana catesbeiana, is most
closely related to the F spotted chorus
frog, Pseudacris clarki G Asian flying frog,
Polypedates leucomystax H northern leopard
frog, Rana pipiens J African bullfrog,
Pyxicephalus adspersus
48
47 Which of these classifications is most
specific? A Family B Genus C
Phylum D Order
49
48 The kingdom Animalia includes all of
these except A jellyfish B sponges C
amoebas D roundworms
50
49 This organism most likely
is a member of which kingdom? F
Eubacteria G Protista H Animalia J
Plantae
Certain Characteristics Of Various Kingdoms Certain Characteristics Of Various Kingdoms
Kingdom Characteristics
Eubacteria Lack organelles and nuclei
Protista Primary one-celled lack specialized tissue systems
Animalia No cell wall have complex cell structure multicellular
Plantae Multicellular organisms autotrophic
51
Bluebells in Different Locations 50 Wh
ich of these is demonstrated by the information
above? F The need for controlling variables in
experiments G The need for classifying
organisms scientifically H The importance of
predicting trends from scientific data J The
importance of questioning experimental evidence
Plants known as bluebells exist in
England, Scotland, and the United States. In each
of these locations, however, the plant known as a
bluebell is very different from the plants called
bluebells in the other two locations.
52
Some Characteristics of Diospyros
texana 51 Which kingdom does this
organism belong to? A Fungi B
Archaebacteria C Plantae D Animalia
Multicellular Eukaryotic Makes its own food
53
52 Which of the following is the most specific
group used to classify organisms? A
Kingdom B Class C Genus D Order
54
53 All these systems help bring materials
to the cells except the A digestive
system B respiratory system C excretory
system D circulatory system
55
54 A portion of the human
excretory system is represented in the diagram.
The order in which urine flows through the
system is F urethra ? bladder ? ureter ?
kidney G ureter ? kidney ? bladder ?
urethra H kidney ? ureter ? bladder ?
urethra J bladder ? urethra ? kidney ? ureter
56
55 The diagram illustrates the
parts of this flower. Which of these parts are
not directly involved in sexual reproduction? A
Stigma and style B Sepal and pedicel C
Anther and filament D Receptacle and ovary
57
56 The diagram represents a
human arm. Which structure is most responsible
for moving the arm to a straighter position? A
Tendons of origin B Biceps C Radius D
Triceps
58
57 Which body system is directly
responsible for delivering nutrients to cells
throughout the body? A Circulatory system B
Integumentary system C Endocrine system D
Respiratory system
59
58 Red marrow is the principal tissue that
produces red blood cells in humans. In which
body system is red marrow found? F
Integumentary system G Respiratory system H
Nervous system J Skeletal system
60
59 According to this information, some
organs of the gastrointestinal tract A
fit in more than one organ system B perform
only one function at a time C supply the body
with platelets D produce soluble vitamins
Food is digested in the gastrointestinal tract to
provide nutrients to the body. In addition,
various hormones secreted from the lining of a
few digestive organs allow other organs to
function properly.
61
60 Why do excess amounts of NaCl in some
peoples diets contribute to high blood pressure
(hypertension)? A The excess NaCl causes red
blood cells to shrink. B The excess NaCl
causes the volume of water in the blood to
increase. C The excess NaCl causes the blood
to become thicker. D The excess NaCl causes
the diameter of the blood vessels to
change.
62
61 According to the graph,
about how many grams of KBr can be dissolved in
200 g of water at 50C? A 72 g B 100
g C 164 g D 190 g
63
62 On a hot summer day, a road-crew worker
perspires and then feels thirsty as her body
temperature increases. This response is an
example of A releasing enzymes B
decreasing respiration C assimilating
proteins D maintaining homeostasis
64
63 Nutrients from digested food move from
the digestive system directly into the A
circulatory system B integumentary system C
excretory system D endocrine system
65
64 When a person is frightened by a wild
animal, some organ systems immediately become
active, while others are suppressed. Which of
these systems is likely to be suppressed? F
Muscular system G Respiratory system H
Endocrine system J Digestive system
66
65 How is the excretory system most likely to
respond when an animal is thirsty? F By
relaxing the smooth muscles G By retaining
body fluids H By absorbing heat from lymph
glands J By releasing hormones
67
66 Which of these statements describes one
possible interaction between the endocrine and
respiratory systems? F The heart is composed
of muscle tissue. G Hormones can trigger
asthma attacks. H The rib cage expands to move
air into the lungs. J Blood cells can attack
pathogens.
68
67 How is the circulatory system related to
the digestive system? F The brain stem
controls the heart rate. G Blood carries
nutrients to body cells. H Stomach muscles
contract and expand. J The pharynx is a
passageway for air and food.
69
68 Because chewing begins the breakdown of
food before it is swallowed, digestion starts
in the mouth and throat. Which of the following
systems aids most in this early stage of
digestion? A Immune system B Excretory
system C Muscular system D Respiratory
system
70
69 The small intestine is to nutrient
absorption as the blood is to nutrient A
assimilation B distribution C
regulation D elimination
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Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
72

Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
1 B 2 BIO 4B 2004 Info Booklet 9
2 J 2 BIO 4B 2003 TAKS 34
3 J 2 BIO 4B Apr 2004 TAKS 18
4 H 2 BIO 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 30
5 H 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS 8
6 A 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS 35
7 D 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS 49
8 B 2 BIO 4B Oct 2005 TAKS 19
9 D 2 BIO 4B Oct 2005 TAKS 23
10 D 2 BIO 4B Feb 2006 TAKS 15
11 A 2 BIO 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 23
12 B 2 BIO 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 45
13 J 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS 16
14 B 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS 23
15 B 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS 41
16 H 2 BIO 6A 2003 TAKS 38
17 A 2 BIO 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 25
18 H 2 BIO 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 36
19 A 2 BIO 6A Jul 2004 TAKS 33
20 D 2 BIO 6A Jul 2004 TAKS 45
21 J 2 BIO 6A Apr 2006 TAKS 40
22 A 2 BIO 6A Apr 2006 TAKS 45
23 A 2 BIO 6A Oct 2005 TAKS 35
24 J 2 BIO 6A Feb 2006 TAKS 28
25 G 2 BIO 6A Fall 2005 TAKS - 28
73

Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
26 B 2 BIO 6B 2004 Info Booklet 6
27 F 2 BIO 6B 2003 TAKS 24
28 H 2 BIO 6B 2003 TAKS 26
29 A 2 BIO 6B Apr 2004 TAKS 33
30 F 2 BIO 6B Jul 2004 TAKS 34
31 H 2 BIO 6B Oct 2005 TAKS 14
32 F 2 BIO 6B Feb 2006 TAKS 32
33 D 2 BIO 6B Jul 2006 TAKS 41
34 D 2 BIO 6B Fall 2005 TAKS 31
35 J 2 BIO 6C Apr 2004 TAKS 22
36 D 2 BIO 6C Jul 2004 TAKS 27
37 A 2 BIO 6C Apr 2006 TAKS 7
38 C 2 BIO 6C Apr 2006 TAKS 31
39 C 2 BIO 6C Oct 2005 TAKS 15
40 B 2 BIO 6C Oct 2005 TAKS 27
41 A 2 BIO 6C Feb 2006 TAKS 5
42 F 2 BIO 6C Feb 2006 TAKS 48
43 G 2 BIO 6C Jul 2006 TAKS 10
44 G 2 BIO 6C Jul 2006 TAKS 32
45 B 2 BIO 8C 2004 Info Booklet 7
46 H 2 BIO 8C 2003 TAKS 12
47 B 2 BIO 8C 2003 TAKS 49
48 C 2 BIO 8C Apr 2004 TAKS 31
49 G 2 BIO 8C Jul 2004 TAKS 32
50 G 2 BIO 8C Oct 2005 TAKS - 10
74

Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
51 C 2 BIO 8C Feb 2006 TAKS 19
52 C 2 BIO 8C Fall 2005 TAKS 33
53 C 2 BIO 10A 2004 Info Booklet 8
54 H 2 BIO 10A 2003 TAKS 16
55 B 2 BIO 10A Apr 2004 TAKS 3
56 D 2 BIO 10A Jul 2004 TAKS 29
57 A 2 BIO 10A Jul 2004 TAKS 47
58 J 2 BIO 10A Feb 2006 TAKS 18
59 A 2 BIO 10A Jul 2006 TAKS 25
60 B 2 BIO 10B 2002 Info Booklet 18
61 C 2 BIO 10B 2002 Info Booklet 20
62 D 2 BIO 10B 2004 Info Booklet 10
63 A 2 BIO 10B 2003 TAKS 29
64 J 2 BIO 10B Apr 2004 TAKS 28
65 G 2 BIO 10B Apr 2006 TAKS 10
66 G 2 BIO 10B Oct 2005 TAKS 30
67 G 2 BIO 10B Feb 2006 TAKS 36
68 C 2 BIO 10B Jul 2006 TAKS 35
69 B 2 BIO 10B Fall 2005 TAKS 9