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Pediatric Surgery Review

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Title: Pediatric Surgery Review


1
Pediatric Surgery Review
  • Jason Frischer
  • March 18, 2004

2
1. An 8 hr old infant drools and returns his
first feed. A tube in passed into the esophagus
and a film obtained. What is the diagnosis?
3
Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula
  • Incomplete partitioning of primitive foregut
  • 5 types of atresias
  • Esophageal atresia with distal TEF most common

8
1
85
2
4
4
Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula
  • Can be part of VACTERL anomalies
  • vertebral, anal, cardiac, TEF, renal, limb
  • Atresias detected by inability to pass NGT/OGT
  • TEF w/o atresia presents with recurrent
    aspiration
  • Low-risk infants should get primary repair
  • long gap (3 vertebral bodies) repair is delayed
  • high-risk babies get gastrostomy
  • Post-op complications include esophageal leak,
    dysmotility, GE reflux, strictures

5
2. A 5-wk-old boy presents with 3 days of
non-bilious projectile vomiting and dehydration.
Which of the following is TRUE about his
condition?
  • A. Immediate laparotomy is warranted.
  • B. UGI series is the diagnostic procedure of
    choice.
  • C. Delay in diagnosis leads to metabolic
    acidosis.
  • D. Most commonly seen in females.
  • E. Fluid replacement consists of ½ NS KCL

6
2. A 5-wk-old boy presents with 3 days of
non-bilious projectile vomiting and dehydration.
Which of the following is TRUE about his
condition?
  • A. Immediate laparotomy is warranted.
  • B. UGI series is the diagnostic procedure of
    choice.
  • C. Delay in diagnosis leads to metabolic
    acidosis.
  • D. Most commonly seen in females.
  • E. Fluid replacement consists of ½ NS KCL

7
Pyloric Stenosis
  • 1 in 600 births, male female ratio 41, 3-12
    weeks
  • Gastric outlet obstruction due to hypertrophy of
    pyloric muscle
  • Progressive, projectile non-bilious vomiting
  • Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
  • renal compensation for hypovolvemia
  • Sono is diagnostic procedure of choice
  • thickness 5 mm, channel length 15 mm
  • Repair via Fredet-Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

8
Pyloromyotomy
9
3. A 6-wk-old infant presents with jaundice. A
sonogram appears normal. HIDA scan fails to
demonstrate emptying into the duodenum. What is
the next best step in management?
  • A. List for liver transplant.
  • B. Follow closely until 3 months of age, then do
    Kasai.
  • C. Percutaneous liver biopsy.
  • D. Initiate anti-inflammatory therapy.
  • E. Laparotomy with operative cholangiogram and
    liver biopsy, then Kasai if warranted.

10
3. A 6-wk-old infant presents with jaundice. An
abdominal USG appears normal. HIDA scan fails to
demonstrate emptying into the duodenum. What is
the next best step in management?
  • A. List for liver transplant.
  • B. Follow closely until 3 months of age, then do
    Kasai.
  • C. Percutaneous liver biopsy.
  • D. Initiate anti-inflammatory therapy.
  • E. Laparotomy with operative cholangiogram and
    liver biopsy, then Kasai if warranted.

11
Biliary Atresia
  • Fibrous obliteration of extrahepatic bile ducts
  • 1 in 10-15 thousand births
  • Jaundice, conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, firm
    hepatomegaly due to biliary cirrhosis
  • Lab work up should include LFTs, Alpha-1
    antitrypsin, TORCH infections, sweat test,
    hepatitis
  • Sono shows no extrahepatic ducts, tiny
    gallbladder
  • HIDA scan reveals no emptying into the duodenum
  • Liver biopsy reveals cholestasis and bile duct
    proliferation

12
Kasai Portoenterostomy
  • Roux-en-Y limb of jejenum sutured to porta where
    atretic bile ducts exit hepatic parenchyma
  • Results depend on age (10 weeks), anatomy and
    histology of atretic bile ducts, ? degree of
    cirrhosis
  • overall 1/3 fail immediately
  • Long term survival in 25 of those that have
    drainage
  • Results of liver transplantation not affected by
    Kasai procedure

13
Biliary Atresia
14
Kasai Portoenterostomy
15
4. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
duodenal atresia?
  • A. It is associated with trisomy 21 in 10
    cases.
  • B. Abdominal X-ray is usually normal.
  • C. Results from disruption of fetal blood
    supply.
  • D. Operative repair involves duodenal resection.
  • E. Concomitant abnormalities can include annular
    pancreas, esophageal atresia, or VACTERL lesions.

16
4. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
duodenal atresia?
  • A. It is associated with trisomy 21 in 10
    cases.
  • B. Abdominal X-ray is usually normal.
  • C. Results from disruption of fetal blood
    supply.
  • D. Operative repair involves duodenal resection.
  • E. Concomitant abnormalities can include annular
    pancreas, esophageal atresia, or VACTERL lesions.

17
Duodenal Atresia
  • Failure to recanalize lumen of duodenum after
    solid phase of embryologic development
  • Associated with Downs syndrome in 30
  • Vomiting can be bilious or non-bilious
  • Abdominal X-ray shows double-bubble
  • Best repaired by bypass - duodenoduodenostomy or
    duodenojejunostomy
  • no indication to divide annular pancreas

18
Duodenal Atresia
19
5. A 3-wk-old baby, previously well, presents
with sudden onset of bilious vomiting. What
study is most appropriate?
  • A. Abdominal X-ray.
  • B. CT scan.
  • C. Upper GI series.
  • D. Barium enema.
  • E. Esophageal pH studies.

20
5. A 3-wk-old baby, previously well, presents
with sudden onset of bilious vomiting. What
study is most appropriate?
  • A. Abdominal X-ray.
  • B. CT scan.
  • C. Upper GI series.
  • D. Barium enema.
  • E. Esophageal pH studies.

21
Malrotation
  • Lack of retroperitoneal fixation of bowel and
    presence of Ladds bands
  • partial or complete duodenal obstruction
  • bowel may twist around SMA axis volvulus
  • up to 75 present w/in 1st month of life
  • Volvulus may present as pain, rectal bleeding,
    cardiovascular collapse w/ metabolic acidosis
  • untwist in direction of normal rotation (CC for
    surgeon)
  • UGI shows duodenojejunal junction to the R of
    midline, more cephalad

22
Malrotation
23
6. A 1.5 kg, 30-wk preemie develops abdominal
distention and bloody stool after 1st feedings.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding his
condition?
  • A. Supportive treatment includes stopping all
    feeds, NGT drainage, IVF, serial abdominal
    exams and radiographs.
  • B. IV antibiotics not indicated unless pathogen
    identified.
  • C. Barium enema is the imaging modality of
    choice.
  • D. Overall mortality reported as 50-60.
  • E. Intestinal stricture formation is rare.

24
6. A 1.5 kg, 30-wk preemie develops abdominal
distention and bloody stool after 1st feedings.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding his
condition?
  • A. Supportive treatment includes stopping all
    feeds, NGT drainage, IVF, serial abdominal exams
    and radiographs.
  • B. IV antibiotics not indicated unless pathogen
    identified.
  • C. Barium enema is the imaging modality of
    choice.
  • D. Overall mortality reported as 50-60.
  • E. Intestinal stricture formation is rare.

25
Necrotizing Entercolitis (NEC)
  • Idiopathic mucosal intestinal injury, may
    progress to transmural necrosis
  • 1/2 patients
  • Signs feeding intolerance , vomiting abdomina
    l distention progressive sepsis autonomic
    instability (Bs and Ds) abdominal wall
    erythema /- mass
  • Labs metabolic acidosis thrombocytopenia

26
Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC)
  • X-rays
  • distended loops c/w ileus, pneumatosis
    intestinalis

27
Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC)
  • Indications for OR are free air (absolute), fixed
    abdominal mass, abdominal wall erythema, failure
    to improve (controversial)
  • OR for resection of dead bowel, formation of
    stomas
  • second-look laparotomy 24-48 hrs if needed

Long-term complication of intestinal strictures
and short bowel syndrome
Overall mortality 20-40
28
7. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
meconium ileus?
  • A. Underlying diagnosis is usually cystic
    fibrosis.
  • B. Most often requires operative intervention.
  • C. Presents as a neonatal bowel obstruction.
  • D. X-rays may reveal a stippled pattern in the
    RLQ (soap bubble sign).
  • E. May be relieved by water-soluble contrast
    enema.

29
7. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
meconium ileus?
  • A. Underlying diagnosis is usually cystic
    fibrosis.
  • B. Most often requires operative intervention.
  • C. Presents as a neonatal bowel obstruction.
  • D. X-rays may reveal a stippled pattern in the
    RLQ (soap bubble sign).
  • E. May be relieved by water-soluble contrast
    enema.

30
Meconium Ileus
  • Newborn bowel obstruction secondary to
    inspissated meconuim in distal ileum
  • Enema reveals microcolon - may be therapeutic
  • Non-operative management successful in 2/3
  • OR required for perforation or failed enema
  • may flush bowel with N-acetylcysteine in saline
  • Bishop-Koop as option if stoma required -
    end-to-side w/ proximal end of distal bowel
    brought out as stoma

31
8. A listless 9-month-old boy presents with
acute onset of severe intermittent abdominal
pain. Rectal exam is guaiac positive. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
  • A. Meckels diverticulum.
  • B. Acute appendicitis.
  • C. Intussusception.
  • D. Intestinal polyp.
  • E. Gastritis.

32
8. A 9-month-old boy presents with acute onset
of crampy abdominal pain. Rectal exam is guiac
positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • A. Meckels diverticulum.
  • B. Acute appendicitis.
  • C. Intussusception.
  • D. Intestinal polyp.
  • E. Gastritis.

33
Intussusception
  • Commonly affects children 3 months to 2 yrs
  • severe crampy abdominal pain (every 10-20
    minutes)
  • vomiting, currant jelly stools
  • tender, sausage-like mass in RUQ
  • Telescoping of terminal ileum into large
    intestine
  • Contrast enema for diagnosis will reduce 80
  • air pressure to 120 mmHg, barium to 100 cm H2O
  • 10 recurrence, often within hours
  • OR reduction if not reduced radiographically
  • 5 of patients need resection

34
9. A full-term newborn has not passed meconuim
by DOL 2. Which of the following is FALSE
regarding his likely diagnosis?
  • A. It is more common in males.
  • B. Suction rectal biopsy is rarely adequate for
    diagnosis.
  • C. Enterocolitis is a significant cause of
    mortality.
  • D. Disease is most often confined to the distal
    colon.
  • E. Barium enema may be normal.

35
9. A full-term newborn has not passed meconuim
by DOL 2. Which of the following is FALSE
regarding his likely diagnosis?
  • A. It is more common in males.
  • B. Suction rectal biopsy is rarely adequate for
    diagnosis.
  • C. Enterocolitis is a significant cause of
    mortality.
  • D. Disease is most often confined to the distal
    colon.
  • E. Barium enema may be normal.

36
Hirschsprungs Disease
  • Absence of ganglia in submucosal and myenteric
    plexuses
  • variable proximal extension of aganglionosis
  • lack of peristalsis and failure of sphincter
    relaxation
  • rectosigmoid only in 75, entire colon in 8
  • Presents as failure to pass meconium w/in 24 hrs
    or constipation in older child
  • Diagnosis best made by rectal biopsy
  • suction adequate if submucosa present

37
Hirschsprungs Disease
  • OR requires biopsies to confirm ganglion cells in
    normal bowel
  • Pull-through operations
  • Swenson complete excision, anastamosis to
    proximal anal canal at columns of Morgagni
  • Soave endorectal mucosal excision, pull through
    rectal muscular sleeve
  • Duhamel retains portion of aganglionic bowel
    anteriorly using GIA stapler

38
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE
with respect to neonatal abdominal wall defects?
  • A. The bowel in omphalocele is covered by a sac.
  • B. Gastroschisis is frequently associated with
    other anomalies.
  • C. A Silastic silo is rarely employed in
    management of these defects.
  • D. Mortality is higher in gastroschisis.
  • E. Operative management of omphalocele usually
    requires bowel resection.

39
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE
with respect to neonatal abdominal wall defects?
  • A. The bowel in omphalocele is covered by a sac.
  • B. Gastroschisis is frequently associated with
    other anomalies.
  • C. A Silastic silo is rarely employed in
    management of these defects.
  • D. Mortality is higher in gastroschisis.
  • E. Operative management of omphalocele usually
    requires bowel resection.

40
Omphalocele
  • Occur 1 in 5000 live births, more common in boys
  • over 50 have associated cardiac, GI, GU,
    musculoskeletal, or CNS anomalies
  • Herniation of abdominal contents through
    defective umbilical ring
  • overlying sac of outer amnion and peritoneum
  • umbilical cord in continuity with sac
  • liver involved in larger defects
  • High mortality (30-60) due to other anomalies

41
Omphalocele
42
Omphalocele
  • Non-operative management with escharotic agent
  • OR for reduction and closure of abdominal wall
  • keep intra-abdominal pressure
  • large defects require skin flap or prosthetic
  • Silastic silo most common, reduce daily for 3-10
    days
  • Post-op complications include sepsis, GE reflux,
    inguinal hernias, abdominal wall hernia

43
Gastroschisis
  • Anterior abdominal wall defect (belly cleft)
  • usually to right of umbilical cord
  • no sac or membrane covering contents
  • exposed bowel thick, edematous, exudative peel
  • associated intestinal atresias in 10
  • Initial management
  • aggressive fluid replacement (2-3X normal)
  • protection of exposed bowel w/occlusive dressing

44
Gastroschisis
45
Gastroschisis
  • Primary reduction and closure in 80-90 cases
  • Silastic silo if high intra-abdominal pressure
  • may require resection if exposed bowel non-viable
  • Post-op complications abdominal compartment
    syndrome
  • sepsis, necrotizing enterocolitis abdominal
    wall cellulitis prolonged ileus short
    gut syndrome w/ TPN dependence

46
11. A 3-year-old girl is referred to you with
fever, failure to thrive, periorbital ecchymoses,
and a large abdominal mass. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
  • A. Hepatoblastoma
  • B. Wilms tumor
  • C. Neuroblastoma
  • D. Ovarian teratoma
  • E. Rhabdomyosarcoma

47
11. A 3-year-old girl is referred to you with
fever, failure to thrive, periorbital ecchymoses,
and a large abdominal mass. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
  • A. Hepatoblastoma
  • B. Wilms tumor
  • C. Neuroblastoma
  • D. Ovarian teratoma
  • E. Rhabdomyosarcoma

48
Neuroblastoma
  • Most common extracranial solid tumor in children
  • median age of onset is 2 years
  • over 90 present by 8 years
  • Arises from the neural crest
  • 60 in abdomen (mostly from the adrenal gland)
  • thoracic tumors next most common (posterior
    mediastinum)
  • Genetic abnormalities common (80)
  • short arm chromosome 1, N-myc amplification, MDR
    gene, DNA ploidy

49
Neuroblastoma
  • Most commonly presents with abdominal mass
  • constitutional symptoms fever, weight loss,
    anemia, FTT, bone pain
  • Metastases at presentation in 3/4 of patients
  • bone, BM, and lymph nodes most common
  • liver and skin less frequently, rare lung and
    brain
  • X-rays may reveal stippled calcifications
  • Pre-treatment staging essential
  • CT scan, MIBG scan, BM biopsy, urine
    catacholamines

50
Neuroblastoma
51
Neuroblastoma
  • Prognosis depends on age, stage, histology
    (Shimada classification), and genetic factors
  • poor prognosis with N-myc amplification, allelic
    loss of 1p, MDR over-expression, normal ploidy
  • Staging by INSS depends on localization and
    excision
  • Survival is improving
  • stage I 90 4-yr survival
  • stage IV 15-40 4-yr survival after BM transplant

52
Wilms Tumor
  • Most common renal tumor of childhood
  • incidence 5-10/100,000
  • 70 present before 5 years, median age is 3 years
  • rare non-sporadic presentation with aniridia,
    hemihypertrophy, urinary tract malformations
  • 5 bilateral
  • Most often seen as asymptomatic abdominal mass
  • pain with tumor necrosis and hemorrhage
  • gross hematuria rare, microscopic hematuria 40
  • hypertension in 25 from high circulating renin

53
Wilms Tumor
  • Pathology
  • large, bulky, well-encapsulated lesions
  • propensity for venous extension in renal vein,
    IVC, RA
  • histology is tri-phasic blastemal, stroma, and
    epithelial elements
  • FH vs. UH (anaplastic) histology affects
    prognosis
  • Pre-treatment imaging
  • CXR, AXR (linear calcifications)
  • USG of kidney and venous drainage
  • CT scan of abdomen /- chest

54
Wilms Tumor
55
Wilms Tumor
  • Management
  • radical, transperitoneal nephrectomy with post-op
    adjuvant chemotherapy for unilateral disease
  • pre-op chemotherapy for bilateral disease,
    intravascular tumor extension, and unresectable
    disease
  • Outcome (NWTS trials)
  • FH 95 stage I to 80 stage IV
  • UH prognosis much poorer in stage II-IV
  • overall UH survival 62

56
12. Which statement is false regarding
extrapulmonary sequestration?
  • A. The parenchyma is not connected to the
    tracheobronchial tree
  • B. Arterial blood supply is systemic
  • C. Venous blood supply is pulmonary
  • D. Most frequently in males
  • E. Commonly associated with other anomalies

57
12. Which statement is false regarding
extrapulmonary sequestration?
  • A. The parenchyma is not connected to the
    tracheobronchial tree
  • B. Arterial blood supply is systemic
  • C. Venous blood supply is pulmonary
  • D. Most frequently in males
  • E. Commonly associated with other anomalies

58
Pulmonary Sequestration
  • Most frequently diagnosed in the first 6 mos
  • Males 3-41
  • Usually located b/w LLL and diaphragm
  • Systemic arterial supply 95
  • Aorta 80, PA 5
  • Systemic venous drainage 80
  • Associated annomalies 65
  • Pulmonary hypoplasia 25, CDH 16

59
Congenital Lobar Emphysema
  • Air trapped in the lobe
  • Leads to adjacent lobe atelectasis
  • Shifts mediastinum to opposite side
  • More common in the upper lobes
  • CXR for diagnosis
  • Resection provides definitive treatment

60
CDH
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